A nurse is teaching a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation and is to undergo an amniocentesis. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to identify which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
"Gender of the fetus"
"Anomalies in fetal chromosomes"
"Rh incompatibility"
"Cephalopelvic disproportion"
"Neural tube defects"
Correct Answer : B,E
Choice A: Amniocentesis is not primarily performed to determine the gender of the fetus. The main indication for this procedure is to detect genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders.
Choice B: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13, among others.
Choice C: Rh incompatibility is assessed through blood tests, not amniocentesis. It involves determining the Rh factor of the mother's blood and monitoring for potential Rh sensitization.
Choice D: Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large or the mother's pelvis is too small to allow for a vaginal delivery. It is not related to amniocentesis.
Choice E: While detecting neural tube defects can be done through amniocentesis, it is not the primary indication for the procedure. Neural tube defects can also be screened for through blood tests and ultrasound examinations. Amniocentesis is more commonly used for chromosomal analysis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Administer oxygen using a nonrebreather mask: While oxygen may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, the priority action in this situation is to reposition the client and relieve potential cord compression.
B) Elevate the client's legs: Elevating the client's legs is not the most appropriate action in this situation and may not address the cause of the decelerations.
C) Place the client in the lateral position: This is the correct answer. The described pattern of the fetal heart rate (slowdown after the start of a contraction with the lowest rate occurring after the peak of the contraction) suggests late decelerations, which are often caused by uteroplacental
insufficiency or cord compression. Placing the client in the lateral position can help alleviate potential compression of the umbilical cord and improve fetal oxygenation.
D) Increase the rate of maintenance IV infusion: Increasing the IV infusion rate may not be the most appropriate action for late decelerations. Repositioning the client is the priority in this situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet: This is an incorrect
interpretation of station 0. Station 0 means that the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, not fully descended through the pelvic outlet.
B) The lowermost portion of the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines: This is the correct interpretation of station 0. Station 0 is the landmark at which the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines in the maternal pelvis.
C) The posterior fontanel is palpable: The position of the fontanelle is not related to the station of the presenting part.
D) The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position: The position of the fetal head is not indicated by the station measurement.
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