A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and unable to urinate.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Place the client's hands in warm water.
Perform a fundal massage.
Administer a benzodiazepine.
Place an ice pack on the client's perineum.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client's hands in warm water is a method to stimulate urination and is appropriate for clients experiencing difficulty voiding.
Choice B rationale:
Performing a fundal massage is incorrect choice in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Administering a benzodiazepine is not appropriate for this situation. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications primarily used for anxiety, insomnia, and seizures. There is no indication for the use of benzodiazepines in this case, as the client's inability to urinate is likely related to a physiological issue postpartum, not anxiety or seizures.
Choice D rationale:
Placing an ice pack on the client's perineum is not the correct intervention for this situation. Ice packs on the perineum are typically used to reduce swelling and relieve pain after childbirth. However, the client's inability to urinate suggests a potential issue within the urinary system, and a fundal massage to promote uterine contractions would be more appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
In the context of an emergency response plan following an external disaster and the need to create bed space for potential admissions, the nurse should consider early discharge for clients who are stable and whose discharge will not compromise their safety or health. Based on the given options, the most appropriate candidate for early discharge would be:
B) A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
Clients who are one day postoperative after a vertebroplasty are typically recovering from a relatively minor procedure and may be stable for discharge if their condition remains uncomplicated.
The other options:
A) A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis may require ongoing monitoring and treatment, and early discharge might not be appropriate.
C) A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy likely has specific treatment needs and should not be discharged early.
D) A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min likely has respiratory distress and should not be discharged early. Their condition requires close monitoring and intervention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder being upset about a change in daily routine is concerning but does not present an immediate threat to their physical health or require urgent attention compared to a potential medical emergency like a sore throat.
Choice B rationale:
Clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic, can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by a severe reduction in white blood cell count. Sore throat could be an early sign of this serious adverse effect. Therefore, a client taking clozapine reporting a sore throat requires immediate evaluation to rule out agranulocytosis, which can progress rapidly if not addressed promptly.
Choice C rationale:
A client with narcissistic personality disorder mocking others during group therapy is disruptive and inappropriate behavior but does not require immediate attention unless it escalates into a situation that threatens the safety of others or the therapeutic environment.
Choice D rationale:
A client with depressive disorder requiring assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs) needs support and care, but this does not indicate an urgent situation. While assistance with ADLs is important for the client's well-being, it is not a priority over a potential medical emergency like agranulocytosis.
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