A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and unable to urinate.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Place the client's hands in warm water.
Perform a fundal massage.
Administer a benzodiazepine.
Place an ice pack on the client's perineum.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client's hands in warm water is a method to stimulate urination and is appropriate for clients experiencing difficulty voiding.
Choice B rationale:
Performing a fundal massage is incorrect choice in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Administering a benzodiazepine is not appropriate for this situation. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications primarily used for anxiety, insomnia, and seizures. There is no indication for the use of benzodiazepines in this case, as the client's inability to urinate is likely related to a physiological issue postpartum, not anxiety or seizures.
Choice D rationale:
Placing an ice pack on the client's perineum is not the correct intervention for this situation. Ice packs on the perineum are typically used to reduce swelling and relieve pain after childbirth. However, the client's inability to urinate suggests a potential issue within the urinary system, and a fundal massage to promote uterine contractions would be more appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration does not require immediate follow-up care. An induration at the injection site indicates a positive reaction, but further evaluation and management are necessary, not urgent.
Choice B rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care. The normal range for INR in a client taking warfarin is usually 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 1.8 suggests inadequate anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of thromboembolic events. Dose adjustment or other interventions are needed to bring the INR within the therapeutic range.
Choice C rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not necessarily require immediate follow-up care. However, sodium phosphate can cause electrolyte imbalances, so monitoring for any signs of electrolyte disturbances is essential, but it does not mandate urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking bumetanide with a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L requires follow-up care. The normal range for potassium is typically 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A potassium level below the normal range (hypokalemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. The client may need potassium supplements or dietary adjustments to correct the imbalance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The described cardiac rhythm with a wavy baseline, no distinguishable P waves, and an increased heart rate is consistent with atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and often rapid heart rate. This rhythm is characterized by the absence of distinct P waves on the ECG.
Choice B rationale:
Ventricular asystole is a flatline on the ECG, indicating the absence of electrical activity in the heart. It is a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) protocols.
Choice C rationale:
Second-degree heart block is characterized by intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulses to conduct to the ventricles. This results in occasional dropped beats and a varying heart rate. It is not consistent with the described ECG findings in the question.
Choice D rationale:
Sinus tachycardia is a regular, fast heart rate originating from the sinoatrial (SA) node. In sinus tachycardia, P waves are present, indicating that the electrical impulses originate in the SA node. The described ECG findings do not match the characteristics of sinus tachycardia.
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