A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum.
Nurses' Notes 1200:
Large amount of lochia rubra noted on perineal pad. Fundus boggy at two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. Oxytocin 20 units being administered via continuous JV infusion.
1215:
Large amount of lochia rubra with several large clots noted. Client reports feeling anxious. Skin cool and clammy. Provider notified.
Select the actions the nurse should take.
Firmly massage the uterine fundus.
Provide emotional support.
Administer oxygen and Weigh the perineal pads.
Insert indwelling urinary catheter and Administer methylergonovine.
Administer terbutaline.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
- A: Correct. Firmly massaging the uterine fundus helps to contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.
- B: Correct. Providing emotional support helps to calm the client and reduce anxiety, which can worsen bleeding.
- C: Correct. Administering oxygen helps to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation, which can be compromised by blood loss. Weighing the perineal pads helps to quantify the amount of blood loss and monitor for hemorrhage.
- D: Correct. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter helps to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to descend and contract more effectively. Administering methylergonovine helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding.
- E: Incorrect. Administering terbutaline is contraindicated in this situation, as it relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and increases bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A random plasma glucose level of 176 mg/dL indicates high blood sugar at the time of the test. Random glucose levels are not ideal for assessing glycemic control as they can vary based on recent food intake and stressors.
Choice B rationale:
Triglyceride levels are not used to assess glycemic control. They measure the amount of triglycerides in the bloodstream and are related to lipid metabolism, not glucose control.
Choice C rationale:
HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is a long-term measure of blood glucose control. An HbA1c level of 6.8% indicates acceptable glycemic control in a person with diabetes. The normal range for HbA1c is typically less than 6.5%. This test reflects the average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months, giving a better understanding of overall glucose control.
Choice D rationale:
Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL is slightly elevated. While fasting blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL are generally considered normal, levels between 100-125 mg/dL are considered prediabetic, and levels above 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions indicate diabetes. The result provided falls within the prediabetic range but does not indicate optimal glycemic control.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
