A nurse is caring for a client who is 1day postoperative following a left lower lobectomy and has a chest tube in place. When assessing the client's threechamber drainage system, the nurse notes that there is no bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Add more water to the suction control chamber of the drainage system.
Verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for leaks.
Continue to monitor the client as this is an expected finding.
Milk the chest tube and dislodge any clots in the tubing that are occluding it.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Add more water to the suction control chamber of the drainage system. While ensuring the water level in the suction control chamber is appropriate (usually around 20 cm H₂O for wet suction systems) is important, simply adding water without first verifying the suction setup and tubing integrity is not the initial action. Overfilling can lead to excessive negative pressure and potential tissue trauma.
B. Verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for leaks. This is the most appropriate action. In a traditional wet suction system, continuous gentle bubbling should be present in the suction control chamber when suction is applied. If there is no bubbling, the nurse should first confirm that the suction regulator is turned on at the prescribed level and inspect the tubing for disconnections, kinks, or leaks that could be disrupting airflow.
C. Continue to monitor the client as this is an expected finding. No bubbling in a wet suction system is not an expected finding. It suggests an issue with suction application, such as incorrect settings or a problem with tubing connections. While intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber may be normal, the suction control chamber should consistently bubble when connected to active suction.
D. Milk the chest tube and dislodge any clots in the tubing that are occluding it. Routine milking or stripping of a chest tube is generally not recommended unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider, as it can create excessive negative pressure and damage lung tissue. If there is concern about occlusion, the nurse should assess for signs of impaired drainage (e.g., sudden cessation of output, respiratory distress) and notify the provider for further intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin: While the hemoglobin is at the lower end of normal, it is not critically low and does not require immediate reporting unless there is evidence of worsening anemia or active bleeding.
B. Upper respiratory infection: A persistent infection lasting over 2 months raises concern for relapsed leukemia or immunosuppression, especially given the elevated WBC count and persistent fever. This should be reported for further evaluation.
C. Breath sounds: The presence of clear breath sounds but with subcostal retractions suggests that the child is having difficulty breathing despite no significant lung congestion. This may indicate respiratory distress or worsening anemia, which requires immediate medical attention.
D. Skin assessment: Petechiae and unexplained bruising suggest thrombocytopenia, a common complication of leukemia relapse or bone marrow suppression. This could indicate a worsening condition and should be reported.
E. Retractions: Subcostal retractions are a sign of increased respiratory effort, suggesting that the child is struggling to maintain oxygenation. This is a serious finding that warrants immediate provider notification.
F. Oxygen saturation: A drop from 97% to 92% suggests respiratory compromise, which may be due to anemia, infection, or leukemic infiltration in the lungs. This decline needs to be reported promptly.
G. Respiratory rate: The increase from 22 to 30 breaths per minute indicates worsening respiratory distress, which may be due to anemia, infection, or respiratory failure. This change requires immediate attention.
H. WBC count: The elevated WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is above the normal range, which may indicate infection or possible leukemia relapse. However, since a mild elevation is expected with infection, it is not as immediately critical as the other findings.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Analgesic. While aspirin has painrelieving (analgesic) properties, it is not prescribed at 325 mg for postMI clients primarily for pain relief. Instead, its role in preventing platelet aggregation is the key factor in reducing future cardiovascular events.
B. Antipyretic. Aspirin can reduce fever (antipyretic effect) by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamus. However, postMI clients are not prescribed aspirin for fever reduction but rather for its cardiovascular protective effects.
C. Antiinflammatory. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and can reduce inflammation. However, at low doses (81–325 mg), its primary function is not antiinflammatory but rather to reduce clot formation and prevent arterial blockage.
D. Antiplatelet aggregate. This is correct. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking cyclooxygenase1 (COX1), which prevents thromboxane A₂ production, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation. This action is critical for preventing recurrent myocardial infarction or stroke in highrisk clients.
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