A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus B-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy."
"Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS."
"There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing."
"We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery."
The Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy." This response is incorrect because GBS infection in pregnant women often does not present with noticeable symptoms. Additionally, GBS screening is not based on symptoms but rather on the presence of the bacteria in the genital or gastrointestinal tract.
Choice B Reason:
"Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS." This response is incorrect because GBS status can change between pregnancies. A negative result in previous pregnancies does not guarantee a negative result in subsequent pregnancies. Screening closer to the delivery date is necessary to determine the current GBS status.
Choice C Reason:
"There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing." This response is incorrect because routine prenatal testing typically does not include GBS screening unless there are specific risk factors or symptoms present. GBS screening is specifically done closer to delivery to determine colonization status at that time.
Choice D Reason:
"We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery." This response is appropriate. Group B streptococcus (GBS) screening is typically performed around the 35th to 37th week of pregnancy because colonization status can change over time. A negative result earlier in the pregnancy does not necessarily mean that the client will remain negative at the time of delivery. Therefore, it is essential to screen closer to delivery to determine if the client is colonized with GBS and if prophylactic measures are needed to reduce the risk of transmission to the newborn during labor and delivery.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Explanation
To calculate the estimated date of delivery using Angele’s Rule, you start with the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtract three months, and then add seven days.
For this client:
First day of last menstrual period (LMP): August 10
Subtract three months: August - 3 months = May
Add seven days: May + 7 days = May 17
So, the client's estimated date of delivery is May 17.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
C. May 17
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test is incorrect. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to determine the fetal-maternal hemorrhage in cases of Rh-negative mothers, particularly after delivery. However, in the immediate postpartum period with uterine atony and significant bleeding, the priority is to control bleeding and stabilize the patient's condition. Obtaining a Kleihauer-Betke test can be done later if indicated, but it is not the immediate action for managing uterine atony.
Choice B Reason:
Administering betamethasone IM is incorrect. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid commonly used to promote fetal lung maturity when preterm birth is anticipated. It is not indicated for managing uterine atony or postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C Reason:
Avoiding performing sterile vaginal examinations is incorrect. Sterile vaginal examinations may be necessary to assess the extent of cervical dilation, evaluate the presence of any retained products of conception, or assist with the placement of interventions such as uterine massage or administration of medications. However, avoiding or minimizing vaginal examinations alone does not address the underlying cause of uterine atony or control postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate immediate action.
Choice D Reason:
Anticipating a prescription for misoprostol is correct. Uterine atony, characterized by the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, is a significant cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analogue, is commonly used to manage uterine atony and prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. It helps to stimulate uterine contractions and reduce bleeding by promoting uterine muscle tone.
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