A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus B-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy."
"Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS."
"There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing."
"We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery."
The Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy." This response is incorrect because GBS infection in pregnant women often does not present with noticeable symptoms. Additionally, GBS screening is not based on symptoms but rather on the presence of the bacteria in the genital or gastrointestinal tract.
Choice B Reason:
"Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS." This response is incorrect because GBS status can change between pregnancies. A negative result in previous pregnancies does not guarantee a negative result in subsequent pregnancies. Screening closer to the delivery date is necessary to determine the current GBS status.
Choice C Reason:
"There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing." This response is incorrect because routine prenatal testing typically does not include GBS screening unless there are specific risk factors or symptoms present. GBS screening is specifically done closer to delivery to determine colonization status at that time.
Choice D Reason:
"We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery." This response is appropriate. Group B streptococcus (GBS) screening is typically performed around the 35th to 37th week of pregnancy because colonization status can change over time. A negative result earlier in the pregnancy does not necessarily mean that the client will remain negative at the time of delivery. Therefore, it is essential to screen closer to delivery to determine if the client is colonized with GBS and if prophylactic measures are needed to reduce the risk of transmission to the newborn during labor and delivery.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test is incorrect. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to determine the fetal-maternal hemorrhage in cases of Rh-negative mothers, particularly after delivery. However, in the immediate postpartum period with uterine atony and significant bleeding, the priority is to control bleeding and stabilize the patient's condition. Obtaining a Kleihauer-Betke test can be done later if indicated, but it is not the immediate action for managing uterine atony.
Choice B Reason:
Administering betamethasone IM is incorrect. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid commonly used to promote fetal lung maturity when preterm birth is anticipated. It is not indicated for managing uterine atony or postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C Reason:
Avoiding performing sterile vaginal examinations is incorrect. Sterile vaginal examinations may be necessary to assess the extent of cervical dilation, evaluate the presence of any retained products of conception, or assist with the placement of interventions such as uterine massage or administration of medications. However, avoiding or minimizing vaginal examinations alone does not address the underlying cause of uterine atony or control postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate immediate action.
Choice D Reason:
Anticipating a prescription for misoprostol is correct. Uterine atony, characterized by the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, is a significant cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analogue, is commonly used to manage uterine atony and prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. It helps to stimulate uterine contractions and reduce bleeding by promoting uterine muscle tone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Providing the newborn with 15 mL glucose water after each feeding does not directly relate to the care of jaundice or phototherapy. While hydration is important, the prescription for phototherapy does not specify the administration of glucose water.
Choice B Reason:
Turning the newborn every 4 hours is a general nursing intervention to prevent pressure ulcers and promote comfort, but it does not specifically address the care needs related to phototherapy for jaundice. While repositioning is important for overall care, it's not the priority action in this situation.
Choice C Reason:
Closing the newborn's eyes before applying eyepatches is correct. In phototherapy, newborns are exposed to special lights that help break down the bilirubin causing jaundice. To protect their eyes from the bright lights, eyepatches are typically applied. Closing the newborn's eyes before applying the eyepatches helps ensure that their eyes are shielded from the light and prevents potential damage or discomfort. The other options are not directly related to the care of a newborn undergoing phototherapy for jaundice.
Choice D Reason:
Applying hydrating lotion to the newborn's skin prior to treatment is correct. While keeping the newborn's skin hydrated is important, applying hydrating lotion prior to phototherapy might interfere with the effectiveness of the treatment. Additionally, there's no specific indication in the scenario provided that suggests the need for hydrating lotion before phototherapy. Therefore, this action is not necessary or recommended
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