A nurse is caring for a client who is brought into the emergency department immediately following a snake bite to his forearm. The client suspects the snake to be venomous. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
Place the extremity in a dependent position.
Administer a corticosteroid.
Apply a tourniquet just above the elbow
Apply an ice pack to the site of the bite.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Place the extremity in a dependent position: The extremity should be placed lower than the heart to slow venom spread. Elevating the limb can increase circulation of the venom, worsening the situation. A dependent position helps to reduce venom movement.
B. Administer a corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are not used for snake bites. The primary treatment involves antivenom and supportive care. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune response and are ineffective for venomous bites.
C. Apply a tourniquet just above the elbow: Tourniquets can cause further tissue damage and concentrate venom. They are not recommended for snake bites and can worsen outcomes by restricting circulation and causing more harm.
D. Apply an ice pack to the site of the bite: Applying ice slows circulation, which could worsen the spread of venom. It should not be used for snake bites, as it delays proper treatment and does not help in venom management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An initial loss of consciousness followed by a coherent period and a subsequent loss of consciousness: An epidural hematoma typically presents with a brief loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid period, then a second loss of consciousness. This pattern is a hallmark sign due to rapid pressure buildup from the blood.
B. Narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia: Narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia are not associated with an epidural hematoma. More commonly, widening pulse pressure and bradycardia (Cushing’s triad) are seen in severe cases of increased intracranial pressure.
C. Drainage of clear fluid from the ears and nose: Drainage of clear fluid from the ears and nose may suggest CSF leakage, typically due to a skull fracture. This is not specific to an epidural hematoma, which primarily involves bleeding between the dura and skull.
D. Extensive swelling under the eyes: "Raccoon eyes" can be seen with basal skull fractures, but it is not specific to epidural hematomas. The hallmark manifestation is the consciousness pattern described in option A.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Initiate client decontamination: While decontamination might seem intuitive, anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) is primarily acquired through inhalation of spores, ingestion, or skin contact with spores. It is not contagious from person to person. Therefore, routine external decontamination of is not necessary.
B. Place the clients in isolation: Isolation may be necessary for individuals who are showing symptoms of anthrax, but for those who may have been exposed without symptoms, antibiotic therapy is more urgent. Isolation would follow if clinical signs of infection develop.
C. Administer antibiotic therapy: After potential exposure to anthrax, the appropriate action is to administer prophylactic antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin or doxycycline. Antibiotics are the first line of defense to prevent the infection, particularly exposure.
D. Treat clients with an antitoxin: Antitoxins are used in cases where infection is confirmed and symptoms are present, particularly in severe forms of anthrax. However, administering antibiotics for prophylaxis is the initial and most important action.
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