A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor and receiving magnesium sulfate therapy.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of magnesium sulfate?
Hypertension
Hyperreflexia
Respiratory depression
Tachycardia
The Correct Answer is C
Magnesium sulfate is a drug that is used to prevent seizures associated with pre-eclampsia and to stop preterm labor. However, it can also cause adverse effects such as respiratory depression, which is a condition where the breathing rate becomes too slow and shallow.
Respiratory depression can be life-threatening for both the mother and the baby, so the nurse should monitor the client’s respiratory rate and oxygen saturation closely.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate can cause hypotension, not hypertension. Hypotension is low blood pressure, which can lead to dizziness, fainting, and shock.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate can cause hyporeflexia, not hyperreflexia. Hyporeflexia is a reduced or absent reflex response, which can indicate magnesium toxicity.
The nurse should check the client’s deep tendon reflexes regularly and stop the infusion if they are absent.
Choice D is wrong because magnesium sulfate can cause bradycardia, not tachycardia.
Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, which can reduce the blood flow to vital organs.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Infection on speculum examination.
Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.
Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.
Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.
Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.
Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause renal impairment and elevated serum creatinine levels in both the mother and the fetus.This can lead to oligohydramnios, reduced fetal urine output, and fetal renal failure.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum creatinine levels of the client and the fetus as a potential complication of indomethacin.
Choice A is wrong because indomethacin does not affect the platelet count.It may increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect, but it does not cause thrombocytopenia.
Choice C is wrong because indomethacin does not cause anemia or decrease the hematocrit.It may cause gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which could lead to anemia, but this is not a common or direct effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because indomethacin does not cause hyperkalemia or increase the serum potassium levels.It may cause hyponatremia due to its effect on renal sodium excretion, but it does not affect potassium balance.
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