A nurse is assessing a pre-term newborn who was born at 28 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings indicates a possible diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
Tachypnea and grunting
Bradycardia and cyanosis
Apnea and nasal flaring
All of the above
The Correct Answer is D
All of the above.
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a condition that affects preterm newborns who have immature lungs and lack sufficient surfactant.
Surfactant is a substance that helps keep the alveoli open and prevents them from collapsing.
Without enough surfactant, the newborn has difficulty breathing and may develop hypoxia and acidosis.
Choice A is wrong because tachypnea and grunting are signs of respiratory distress, but they are not specific to RDS.
They can also be caused by other conditions such as transient tachypnea of the newborn, pneumonia, or congenital heart defects.
Choice B is wrong because bradycardia and cyanosis are also signs of respiratory distress, but they are not specific to RDS.
They can also be caused by other conditions such as hypothermia, hypoglycemia, or sepsis.
Choice C is wrong because apnea and nasal flaring are also signs of respiratory distress, but they are not specific to RDS.
They can also be caused by other conditions such as intracranial ...
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Infection on speculum examination.
Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.
Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.
Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.
Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.
Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess the client’s vital signs.
The nurse should first assess the client’s vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and identify any signs of infection, bleeding, or shock.
The nurse should also monitor the fetal heart rate to assess fetal well-being.
Choice B is wrong because a sterile vaginal exam is not indicated for a client who reports lower abdominal cramping and may increase the risk of infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because administering tocolytic medication is not the first action the nurse should take.
Tocolytic medication may be used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy, but only after assessing the client’s and fetus’s condition and obtaining a prescription from the provider.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate is not the first action the nurse should take.
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important to assess fetal well-being, but it does not take priority over assessing the client’s vital signs.
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