A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following orthopedic surgery and is receiving IV ketorolac.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Dry mouth.
Oliguria.
Nausea.
Altered taste.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Dry mouth can be an anticholinergic effect of some medications or a symptom of dehydration, but it is not a direct, priority adverse effect associated with ketorolac, which is an NSAID. While uncomfortable, it does not indicate immediate life-threatening organ dysfunction.
Choice B rationale
Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, which can lead to adverse renal effects. Prostaglandins play a crucial role in maintaining renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate. Oliguria (urine output < 0.5 mL/kg/hr or < 400 mL/24 hr) indicates potential acute kidney injury, a serious and life-threatening complication that requires immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice C rationale
Nausea is a common gastrointestinal adverse effect of NSAIDs, including ketorolac, due to direct irritation of the gastric mucosa or central effects. While it can cause discomfort and impact client well-being, it is generally not a life-threatening symptom and does not take priority over signs of organ damage.
Choice D rationale
Altered taste, or dysgeusia, can be an idiosyncratic drug reaction but is not a common or priority adverse effect of ketorolac. While it can affect appetite and client satisfaction, it does not signify acute organ damage or a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory and central nervous system depression. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine, not an opioid. Therefore, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the adverse effects of midazolam. Its mechanism of action specifically targets opioid receptors.
Choice B rationale
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It specifically binds to benzodiazepine receptors, competitively inhibiting the effects of benzodiazepines like midazolam. In cases of benzodiazepine overdose or excessive sedation leading to adverse effects such as hypotension, flumazenil can rapidly reverse these central nervous system depressant effects.
Choice C rationale
Moxifloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. It is used to treat bacterial infections and has no pharmacological action that would counteract the effects of benzodiazepines or specifically address drug-induced hypotension during a procedure like a colonoscopy. Administering an antibiotic in this scenario would be inappropriate.
Choice D rationale
Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid used primarily for its effects on electrolyte and fluid balance, often in conditions like Addison's disease or orthostatic hypotension. It would not be an appropriate choice for rapidly reversing acute drug-induced hypotension caused by midazolam during a medical procedure. Its action is not immediate.
Correct Answer is ["E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Persistent coughing with mucopurulent sputum suggests an ongoing respiratory infection or inflammation. Mucopurulent sputum indicates the presence of neutrophils and bacteria, often seen in bacterial pneumonia or tuberculosis. While significant, coughing alone is not an immediate life-threatening finding but rather a symptom requiring monitoring and further diagnostic follow-up to confirm the cause.
Choice B rationale: Joint pain in a patient receiving infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis may reflect an autoimmune flare or side effects of immunosuppression. Although uncomfortable and significant for quality of life, joint pain does not usually require immediate intervention compared to respiratory or infectious signs that may threaten life or transmission risk.
Choice C rationale: Anorexia, or decreased appetite, is a common systemic symptom in chronic infections like tuberculosis. It reflects the body’s inflammatory response and catabolic state but is a nonspecific finding. It requires addressing nutritional support but is not immediately life-threatening or requiring urgent intervention compared to active infectious disease signs.
Choice D rationale: Night sweats are a classic systemic symptom of tuberculosis caused by cytokine-mediated thermoregulatory dysfunction during infection. Although important in clinical suspicion, night sweats themselves do not necessitate immediate intervention but support the need for further diagnostic workup and infection control precautions.
Choice E rationale: An 11 mm induration on the purified protein derivative (PPD) test is considered positive in this patient due to immunosuppression with infliximab, which increases TB risk. The normal cutoff varies by risk factors, but 5 mm or greater is positive in immunosuppressed patients. This finding requires urgent follow-up to initiate treatment and prevent active disease and transmission, making it the most critical.
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