A nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo a bilateral prophylactic mastectomy. The client states that her family opposes her decision. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Did you tell your provider that your family doesn't agree with your decision?
Your family disagrees with your decision?
You are making the same decision I would make.
You should get your family to agree with your decision before signing the consent.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Asking if the client informed her provider about family disagreement shifts focus from addressing her emotional needs to a procedural question. It does not facilitate therapeutic communication or explore the client’s feelings about her family’s opposition. This response fails to support the client’s autonomy or address the psychological impact of her decision, making it less effective in this context.
Choice B reason: Restating the client’s concern about family disagreement uses reflective listening, a therapeutic technique that validates her feelings and encourages further discussion. This approach fosters trust, helps the client process her emotions, and supports her autonomy in deciding on the mastectomy, aligning with patient-centered care principles for addressing sensitive decisions.
Choice C reason: Stating that the nurse would make the same decision introduces personal bias, which is inappropriate in therapeutic communication. It shifts focus from the client’s needs to the nurse’s perspective, potentially undermining the client’s autonomy. This response does not address the family’s opposition or support the client’s decision-making process, making it ineffective.
Choice D reason: Suggesting the client needs family agreement before signing consent undermines her autonomy as a competent adult. Informed consent requires only the client’s understanding and agreement, not family approval. This response dismisses the client’s decision-making capacity and fails to address her emotional concerns about family opposition, making it inappropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
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A. Maternal fever Maternal fever typically causes fetal tachycardia (elevated baseline >160/min), not bradycardia. Fever increases maternal metabolic rate and fetal heart rate.
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B. Chorioamnionitis This intrauterine infection also leads to fetal tachycardia, due to inflammatory stress and maternal fever. It is not a cause of bradycardia.
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C. Maternal hypoglycemia ✅ Low maternal glucose levels can reduce fetal energy supply and oxygenation, leading to fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min). This is a recognized cause of sustained bradycardia.
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D. Fetal anemia Fetal anemia usually results in tachycardia as the fetus compensates for reduced oxygen‑carrying capacity by increasing heart rate. It does not cause bradycardia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, typically causes hypotension via alpha-adrenergic blockade, not hypertension. Expecting blood pressure elevation shows misunderstanding, as its cardiovascular effects require monitoring for orthostatic changes, not hypertensive risks, in depression treatment.
Choice B reason: Acknowledging a 2-4 week delay for amitriptyline’s effect shows understanding, as tricyclics increase synaptic serotonin and norepinephrine gradually, requiring neuroplastic changes for mood improvement. This reflects accurate knowledge of the drug’s onset, critical for managing expectations in depression therapy.
Choice C reason: Taking amitriptyline on an empty stomach is incorrect, as food reduces gastrointestinal side effects like nausea. Its absorption is unaffected by food, but taking it with meals improves tolerability, indicating a misunderstanding of administration guidelines for effective therapy.
Choice D reason: Morning dosing of amitriptyline is incorrect, as its sedative effects, via histamine blockade, are best utilized at bedtime to aid sleep. Morning use may cause daytime drowsiness, reducing adherence, indicating a misunderstanding of its pharmacological profile in depression management.
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