A nurse is caring for a client with a blood glucose of 42 mg/dL who is confused and diaphoretic.
Which of the following are the priority nursing interventions?
Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
Prepare for emergency dialysis.
Administer 50
Recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer : C,D
Choice A rationale
Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is an inappropriate intervention for a confused client with a blood glucose of 42 mg/dL. While fluids are important, the priority is to raise the blood glucose level immediately. Furthermore, confusion increases the risk of aspiration, making the oral route dangerous if the client cannot protect their airway. Simple water intake does nothing to address the underlying neuroglycopenia. Treatment must focus on rapidly delivering glucose through concentrated sources to restore brain function.
Choice B rationale
Emergency dialysis is used for life-threatening electrolyte imbalances, such as severe hyperkalemia, or for clearing specific toxins and managing end-stage renal disease. It has no role in the management of acute hypoglycemia. The client’s confusion and diaphoresis are caused by a lack of circulating glucose, not the buildup of uremic waste products. Preparing for dialysis would delay the life-saving administration of glucose and would be an irrelevant and potentially harmful diversion of medical resources.
Choice C rationale
Administering 50 percent dextrose (D50) intravenously is a priority intervention for a client who is symptomatic and has a blood glucose level as low as 42 mg/dL. Because the client is confused, oral glucose is unsafe due to the risk of aspiration. D50 provides a concentrated bolus of glucose that rapidly increases serum levels, providing the brain with the necessary fuel to regain consciousness and stop the neuroglycopenic symptoms. This is a standard emergency protocol for severe hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale
Rechecking the blood glucose 15 minutes after an intervention is a critical step in the "15-15 rule" of hypoglycemia management. After administering a glucose source, the nurse must evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment to ensure the level is rising appropriately toward the normal range of 70 to 110 mg/dL. This allows for the timely administration of a second dose if the glucose remains low. Continuous monitoring is essential until the client is stable and their mental status clears.
Choice E rationale
Administering an IV insulin infusion is strictly contraindicated for a client with a blood glucose of 42 mg/dL. Insulin works by moving glucose from the bloodstream into the cells, which would further lower the serum glucose and could lead to seizures, permanent brain damage, or death. Insulin is used to treat hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. The goal in this scenario is to raise the glucose level, so any administration of insulin would be a fatal medical error in this context.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The clinical presentation of elevated blood pressure, tachypnea, and decreased oxygen saturation strongly suggests fluid volume overload. New onset crackles in the lungs and pitting edema are classic indicators of pulmonary congestion and systemic fluid retention. In a 72-year-old patient receiving hypertonic saline for hyponatremia, the risk of rapid fluid shifts into the intravascular space is high. Prompt notification of the provider is essential to adjust the infusion and prevent further respiratory or cardiac compromise.
Choice B rationale
Continuing to monitor without intervention is inappropriate and dangerous when a client shows active signs of respiratory distress and cardiovascular strain. Monitoring is a secondary action that must follow immediate clinical intervention or notification of the medical team. The presence of crackles and a drop in oxygen saturation to 91 percent indicates that the current treatment plan is causing harm. Waiting longer could lead to acute pulmonary edema or heart failure in an elderly patient with limited cardiac reserve.
Choice C rationale
Increasing the fluid rate would exacerbate the existing fluid volume excess and worsen the client's condition. Hypertonic solutions draw intracellular fluid into the extracellular space, rapidly increasing circulating volume. The patient is already showing signs that the heart cannot handle the current volume, as evidenced by the 1.2 kg weight gain and edema. Further increasing the rate would likely lead to severe hypertension and life-threatening respiratory failure due to worsening pulmonary congestion and alveolar flooding.
Choice D rationale
Requesting anti-anxiety medication addresses a symptom rather than the underlying physiological cause of the restlessness. The client's confusion and restlessness are most likely secondary to hypoxia and cerebral changes from fluid shifts or hyponatremia. Administering a sedative could mask worsening neurological status and potentially depress the respiratory drive in a patient already struggling with oxygenation. The priority must be correcting the fluid imbalance and improving oxygenation through appropriate medical management of the overload.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Promethazine is an antihistamine with potent antiemetic properties often used in the postoperative setting to manage nausea and vomiting. The intravenous route is appropriate for a patient who is actively vomiting and unable to tolerate oral intake. By blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, it effectively reduces the vomiting reflex. Since the patient is in the PACU and actively emetic, parenteral administration ensures rapid onset of action and reliable systemic absorption.
Choice B rationale
Ondansetron is a highly effective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used for postoperative nausea. however, the oral route is contraindicated for a patient who is actively vomiting. If a patient cannot keep fluids down, a pill or disintegrating tablet will likely be expelled before it can be absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract. In the immediate postoperative phase with active emesis, the nurse must prioritize non-oral routes, such as intravenous or intramuscular, to achieve therapeutic effects.
Choice C rationale
Acetaminophen administered rectally is an analgesic and antipyretic medication. While it bypasses the oral route, it does nothing to address the patient's primary distress, which is active vomiting. The question asks for an appropriate medication for a patient who is vomiting, and Tylenol lacks antiemetic properties. Using a rectal suppository for pain might be a secondary consideration, but it does not treat the underlying gastric distress or the risk of aspiration and dehydration.
Choice D rationale
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used for pain and inflammation. Like other oral medications, it is inappropriate for a patient experiencing active emesis. Furthermore, NSAIDs can cause gastric irritation, which might worsen the patient's nausea. In the postoperative period, especially following a cholecystectomy, maintaining a patent airway and stopping vomiting is the priority. Giving an oral medication during active vomiting is ineffective and increases the risk of the patient choking or inhaling vomitus.
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