A nurse is caring for a patient that is experiencing status epilepticus. Which of the following prescribed medications should the nurse anticipate to administer?
Lorazepam
Lisinopril
Phenytoin
Atenolol
The Correct Answer is A
A. Lorazepam. Lorazepam (a benzodiazepine) is the first-line medication for status epilepticus because it acts quickly to stop seizures. It enhances gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) activity, leading to rapid suppression of neuronal excitability. It is usually administered intravenously (IV) for fast onset.
B. Lisinopril. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure. It has no role in stopping seizures or treating status epilepticus.
C. Phenytoin. Phenytoin is used for long-term seizure control but is not the first-line medication for stopping active seizures. It is often administered after benzodiazepines to help prevent seizure recurrence rather than terminating the ongoing seizure.
D. Atenolol. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and tachycardia. It does not have anticonvulsant properties and is not used to treat seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ask the client to read a Snellen chart. Cranial nerve II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, including visual acuity, peripheral vision, and light perception. A Snellen chart is used to assess distance vision by having the client read letters at a standardized distance. Additional tests for cranial nerve II include the confrontation test for peripheral vision and ophthalmoscopic examination to assess the optic disc and retina.
B. Ask the client to identify scented aromas. This test evaluates cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), which controls the sense of smell. The nurse would test this nerve by having the client close one nostril at a time and identify familiar scents, such as coffee or vanilla. Impairment in olfactory function can be caused by sinus infections, head trauma, neurodegenerative diseases (e.g., Parkinson’s or Alzheimer’s), or aging, but it is not related to cranial nerve II.
C. Ask the client to clench his teeth. This assessment evaluates cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve), which controls facial sensation and the muscles of mastication (chewing). The nurse would assess motor function by asking the client to clench their teeth while palpating the masseter and temporalis muscles for strength. Sensory function is assessed by light touch or sharp/dull discrimination on the face. This nerve does not play a role in vision or visual acuity.
D. Listen to the client's speech. Speech evaluation involves cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), and XII (hypoglossal), which coordinate swallowing, phonation (voice production), and tongue movement. Impairment of these nerves can result in dysphonia (hoarse voice), dysarthria (slurred speech), or difficulty swallowing. While speech issues may sometimes indicate neurological deficits, they do not assess the function of cranial nerve II, which is solely responsible for vision.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. This type of multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by periods of symptom exacerbation (relapses) followed by periods of remission, where symptoms partially or completely resolve. It is the most common form of MS, accounting for approximately 85% of initial MS diagnoses. The client’s report of active symptoms followed by symptom-free periods is consistent with this pattern.
B. Clinically isolated syndrome. This term refers to a single episode of neurological symptoms lasting at least 24 hours, without prior episodes. While some individuals with clinically isolated syndrome later develop MS, the presence of multiple episodes in the client’s history suggests an established MS diagnosis rather than an isolated event.
C. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis. This form of MS involves a gradual, continuous worsening of symptoms from the onset of the disease, without distinct relapses or remissions. The client’s history of symptom-free periods makes this diagnosis unlikely.
D. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis. This type begins as relapsing-remitting MS but eventually transitions into a progressive form with a steady decline and fewer remissions. Since the client still experiences distinct remissions, the disease has not yet progressed to this stage.
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