A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant.
Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?
The woman has extremely slender hips.
The woman’s fetus is in a transverse lie.
The woman’s fetus is hyperactive.
The woman has a posterior cervix.
The Correct Answer is B
A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.
This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply. Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.
Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.
The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal. A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.
Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.
Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors. Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.
Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.
A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful. However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) can cause eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures and coma.Eclampsia can occur during pregnancy, labor, or postpartum.
A nurse should monitor the client for signs of increased blood pressure, headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia, which may indicate an impending convulsion.
Choice A is wrong because hemorrhage is not a common complication of PIH.
Hemorrhage may occur due to other causes such as uterine atony, lacerations, or retained placenta.
Choice B is wrong because urinary retention is not a common complication of PIH.
Urinary retention may occur due to other causes such as anesthesia, trauma, or infection.
Choice D is wrong because thrombophlebitis is not a common complication of PIH.
Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation.
It may occur due to other risk factors such as immobility, dehydration, or injury.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.“The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”
This statement shows that the patient understands that placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the internal os of the cervix, which prevents a safe vaginal delivery.The patient would need a cesarean delivery to avoid bleeding and complications.
Choice A is wrong because it describes placental abruption, not placenta previa.
Placental abruption is when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause severe bleeding and fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a normal position of the placenta at the top of the womb.
This does not interfere with vaginal delivery and does not cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because it describes placenta increta or percreta, not placenta previa.
Placenta increta or percreta is when the placenta grows too deeply into or through the uterine wall, which can cause severe bleeding and damage to the uterus and other organs.
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