A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant.
Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?

The woman has extremely slender hips.

The woman’s fetus is in a transverse lie.

The woman’s fetus is hyperactive.

The woman has a posterior cervix.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.

This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply. Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.

Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.

The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal. A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.

Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.

Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors. Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.

Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.

A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful. However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C. Auscultate the fetal heart sounds.This is because spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM) may be associated with fetal distress or cord prolapse, and the nurse should assess the fetal well-being as soon as possible.Fetal heart sounds can indicate the presence of fetal bradycardia, tachycardia, or decelerations, which may require immediate intervention.

Choice A is wrong because checking the specific gravity of the amniotic fluid is not a priority action after SROM.The specific gravity can help differentiate amniotic fluid from urine, but it is not as reliable as other methods such as nitrazine paper test or visual inspection.

Choice B is wrong because providing dry linens for the patient is a comfort measure, but not a priority action after SROM.The nurse should first ensure the safety of the fetus and the mother before attending to their comfort needs.

Choice D is wrong because notifying the health care provider is an important action after SROM, but not the first one.The nurse should gather relevant data such as fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and characteristics of the fluid before contacting the provider.

A. Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally. B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral. C. The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours. D. After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.

This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.

Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.

Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.

This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.

The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.

Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.

This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.

The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant. Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient states, “My water just broke.” The nurse verifies that her membranes have ruptured spontaneously. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline. Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient who is 17 weeks pregnant shares several pieces of information with the nurse. Which statement made by the patient would indicate the patient is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)?

A patient who is 33 weeks pregnant has been experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions.Which information should the nurse include in responding to this patient?

The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

A patient comes to the antepartal clinic for her visit and provides the nurse with information. What piece of information places this patient at high risk for exposure to teratogenic agents?

A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks. Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?

A 14-year-old patient visits the antepartal clinic because she has missed three menstrual periods.The patient is to have a pelvic examination. In addition to explaining the procedure, which measure would best help reduce the patient’s anxiety?

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus (T1 D) is 32 weeks pregnant.The client returns to the clinic for a scheduled ultrasound and non-stress test. What should the nurse expect the non-stress test to determine?

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant.
Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?