A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has hyperthermia.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Cover the adolescent with a thermal blanket
Submerge the adolescent’s feet in ice water
Initiate seizure precautions
Administer oral acetaminophen
The Correct Answer is C

Hyperthermia is a condition in which the body temperature is abnormally high, usually due to exposure to heat, infection, or certain medications.
Hyperthermia can cause neurological complications, such as seizures, confusion, or coma. Therefore, the nurse should initiate seizure precautions for an adolescent who has hyperthermia to prevent injury and protect the airway.
Choice A is wrong because covering the adolescent with a thermal blanket would increase the body temperature and worsen hyperthermia. The nurse should remove excess clothing and use cooling measures, such as fans, ice packs, or cool fluids.
Choice B is wrong because submerging the adolescent’s feet in ice water would cause vasoconstriction and shivering, which would reduce heat loss and increase heat production. The nurse should avoid using extreme cold or ice water to cool the body.
Choice D is wrong because administering oral acetaminophen would not be effective for hyperthermia caused by non-infectious factors, such as heat exposure or medications.
Acetaminophen lowers the body temperature by reducing the hypothalamic set point, which is not altered in hyperthermia. Additionally, oral medications may be difficult to swallow or absorb in a hyperthermic patient.
Normal body temperature ranges from 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). Hyperthermia is defined as a body temperature above 38.5°C (101.3°F).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.
A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.
Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.
PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.
200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.
150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.
Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL.
Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.
Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choiced. A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
An induration after a Mantoux test indicates a positive reaction, but it does not necessarily require immediate follow-up unless the induration is significant and the client has risk factors for tuberculosis.
Choice B rationale:
Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel preparation for colonoscopy. This does not typically require follow-up unless the client experiences adverse effects such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalance.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Therefore, this finding does not require follow-up.
Choice D rationale:
An INR of 1.8 for a client taking warfarin is below the therapeutic range for most indications (typically 2.0-3.0). This requires follow-up to adjust the warfarin dosage to achieve the desired anticoagulation effect.
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