A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has hyperthermia.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Cover the adolescent with a thermal blanket
Submerge the adolescent’s feet in ice water
Initiate seizure precautions
Administer oral acetaminophen
The Correct Answer is C
Hyperthermia is a condition in which the body temperature is abnormally high, usually due to exposure to heat, infection, or certain medications.
Hyperthermia can cause neurological complications, such as seizures, confusion, or coma. Therefore, the nurse should initiate seizure precautions for an adolescent who has hyperthermia to prevent injury and protect the airway.
Choice A is wrong because covering the adolescent with a thermal blanket would increase the body temperature and worsen hyperthermia. The nurse should remove excess clothing and use cooling measures, such as fans, ice packs, or cool fluids.
Choice B is wrong because submerging the adolescent’s feet in ice water would cause vasoconstriction and shivering, which would reduce heat loss and increase heat production. The nurse should avoid using extreme cold or ice water to cool the body.
Choice D is wrong because administering oral acetaminophen would not be effective for hyperthermia caused by non-infectious factors, such as heat exposure or medications.
Acetaminophen lowers the body temperature by reducing the hypothalamic set point, which is not altered in hyperthermia. Additionally, oral medications may be difficult to swallow or absorb in a hyperthermic patient.
Normal body temperature ranges from 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). Hyperthermia is defined as a body temperature above 38.5°C (101.3°F).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Choice A reason: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a rapid, irregular heartbeat and an absence of distinct P waves on the ECG, which is not indicated by the information provided.
Choice B reason: First-degree AV block is indicated by a prolonged PR interval without affecting the overall heart rate, aligning with the client’s PR interval of 0.24 seconds.
Choice C reason: Premature ventricular contraction would show an abnormal QRS complex on the ECG, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
Choice D reason: Sinus bradycardia is defined by a heart rate less than 60 bpm, which does not apply here as the client’s heart rate is 69/min, within the normal range of 60-100 bpm.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Determine the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale score. This is because the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool to assess the level of consciousness and neurological status of a client who has a closed head injury. The GCS score can help guide the priority of interventions and the need for further diagnostic tests.
Choice A is wrong because an MRI of the brain is not the first action to take for a client who has a closed head injury. An MRI may be indicated later to evaluate the extent of brain damage, but it is not an emergency procedure.
Choice B is wrong because mannitol IV bolus is a medication that reduces intracranial pressure (ICP) by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue. However, mannitol should not be administered before confirming the presence and degree of increased ICP, which can be done by measuring the GCS score and other vital signs.
Choice D is wrong because inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for the client is not the first action to take for a client who has a closed head injury. A urinary catheter may be needed to monitor fluid balance and renal function, but it is not an urgent intervention.
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