A nurse is conducting a staff in-service on childhood cancers. Which is the primary site of osteosarcoma?
Humerus
Femur
Tibia
Pelvis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Humerus is incorrect because although osteosarcoma can occasionally affect the humerus, it is not the most common site. Upper extremity involvement is less frequent in pediatric patients.
B. Femur is correct because osteosarcoma most commonly arises in the metaphyseal region of long bones, particularly around the distal femur, which accounts for approximately 50% of cases. This site is prone to rapid bone growth, which is associated with tumor development.
C. Tibia is incorrect because while the tibia is a site for osteosarcoma, it is the second most common site, after the femur. Incidence in the tibia is lower compared to the distal femur.
D. Pelvis is incorrect because osteosarcoma rarely originates in flat bones such as the pelvis in children. Pelvic involvement is uncommon and usually occurs in older adolescents or adults.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Closing the doors to the room is incorrect because this primarily reduces heat loss through convection and drafts, not conduction. While it helps maintain ambient temperature, it does not directly transfer heat to the newborn through physical contact.
B. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer is incorrect because radiant warmers primarily prevent heat loss through radiation, not conduction. They provide a warm environment, but the newborn does not need to be in direct contact with a warmer for conduction.
C. Drying the newborn with a warm blanket is partially correct because it can prevent evaporative heat loss, but the primary heat transfer mechanism here is insulation and evaporation prevention, not conduction.
D. Placing the newborn on the mother's chest is correct because conduction occurs when heat is transferred directly from one surface to another. Skin-to-skin contact allows the mother’s body heat to directly warm the newborn, helping maintain temperature stability. This method is evidence-based and also promotes bonding and breastfeeding initiation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The lochia is small with scant clots is incorrect because scant lochia is a normal finding in the immediate postpartum period. Scant lochia reflects the normal shedding of the uterine lining and is not affected by bladder distention. While abnormal lochia patterns can indicate complications such as retained placental fragments or infection, small, scant lochia alone does not suggest a distended bladder.
B. The fundus is at the umbilicus and midline is incorrect because a firm, midline fundus at the umbilicus is considered a normal finding 2 hours postpartum. This indicates that the uterus is contracting appropriately and that there is no interference from bladder distention. A normal fundal position rules out bladder distention as a cause for uterine displacement.
C. The lochia is moderate with no clots is incorrect because moderate lochia is also within the expected range for 2 hours postpartum and represents normal uterine bleeding as the uterus continues involution. This finding does not indicate bladder distention, although excessive bleeding or clots could signal uterine atony or retained tissue.
D. The fundus is deviated to the right at U+2 is correct because a lateral displacement of the fundus, most commonly to the right, is a hallmark sign of bladder distention. The full bladder physically pushes the uterus out of midline, preventing adequate contraction. If left unrelieved, this can increase the risk of uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should assist the patient to void or catheterize if necessary, then reassess the fundal position to ensure the uterus is firm and midline.
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