A nurse is consulting a pharmacological reference about medication compatibility prior to administering warfarin to a client.
Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as being incompatible with warfarin?
Naproxen.
Magnesium hydroxide.
Lisinopril.
Propranolol.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can increase the risk of bleeding when used with warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Combining these two medications can lead to excessive bleeding and is considered incompatible.
Choice B rationale:
Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and does not have significant interactions with warfarin. It does not affect the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.
Choice C rationale:
Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and other heart conditions. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Answer is: b. Document the client's condition every 15 min.
Explanation: The nurse manager should include the guideline to document the client's condition every 15 minutes while using belt restraints. This is to ensure close monitoring of the client's physical and psychological well-being and to evaluate the ongoing need for restraint use.
Choice a. is wrong because requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive might not be appropriate. The use of restraints should be based on a thorough assessment of the client's condition and should be the least restrictive method possible.
Choice c. is wrong because attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails poses a safety risk to the client, as the side rails can be lowered accidentally or intentionally, leading to potential injury.
Choice d. is wrong because removing the client's restraint every 4 hours might not be appropriate, as it depends on the client's specific needs, facility policies, and state regulations. The nurse should follow appropriate guidelines for removing restraints and reassess the client's need for continued restraint use.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A swollen area on the calf can indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication of immobility. Immobilization can lead to blood stasis in the veins, increasing the risk of clot formation. DVT can result in severe complications, such as pulmonary embolism, making it a critical concern that requires immediate attention.
Choice B rationale:
Increased blood pressure is not a direct complication of immobility. However, immobility can contribute to hypertension over time due to factors such as weight gain and reduced cardiovascular fitness. While hypertension is a concern, it is not an acute complication of immobility that necessitates immediate intervention.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased serum calcium levels are not a direct complication of immobility. Immobility can lead to bone density loss and potential fractures due to reduced weight-bearing activities, but it does not cause an acute decrease in serum calcium levels.
Choice D rationale:
Urinary frequency is not a typical complication of immobility. Immobility can affect the urinary system, potentially leading to urinary stasis and increased risk of urinary tract infections, but urinary frequency is not a direct result of immobility.
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