A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago.
The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.

Administer flumazenil to the client.

Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.

Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

= Answer is... Choice B. Administer flumazenil to the client.

Choice A rationale:

In the emergency department scenario described, the client has presented with symptoms suggestive of a diazepam overdose, indicating potential suicidal behavior. However, while evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is an important aspect of comprehensive care, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client's lethargy and respiratory depression require urgent intervention to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose and stabilize their condition. Once the client's immediate medical needs are addressed, further assessment and intervention regarding suicidal behavior can be pursued as part of ongoing care and safety planning.

Choice B rationale:

Administering flumazenil to the client is the most appropriate next action in the management of a diazepam overdose. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as diazepam by competitively blocking benzodiazepine binding sites on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. By antagonizing the effects of diazepam, flumazenil can rapidly restore consciousness and respiratory drive in clients experiencing benzodiazepine-induced central nervous system depression, such as lethargy and hypoventilation. Prompt administration of flumazenil is crucial for preventing further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory arrest in overdose situations.

Choice C rationale:

Monitoring the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis is an important aspect of nursing care during IV therapy; however, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. While maintaining IV access is essential for administering medications and fluids, including flumazenil in this case, the urgent need to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose takes precedence over monitoring for IV complications. Thrombophlebitis can be assessed and managed concurrently with the administration of flumazenil and other aspects of the client's care once their immediate medical condition is stabilized.

Choice D rationale:

Initiating seizure precautions for the client may be warranted in certain clinical situations, particularly if the client has a history of seizures or if there are concerns about potential withdrawal or rebound seizures following the administration of flumazenil. However, in the context of a diazepam overdose with central nervous system depression and lethargy, the primary focus is on reversing the effects of the overdose and restoring respiratory function. Seizure precautions can be implemented if indicated based on ongoing assessment and clinical judgment but are not the immediate next action following initiation of IV access and administration of flumazenil.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Absence seizures typically last for a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. This choice is incorrect because it provides inaccurate information about the duration of absence seizures.

Choice B rationale:

Absence seizures are brief episodes of staring that can be mistaken for daydreaming. It is crucial for the parent to recognize this symptom to ensure the child's safety and seek appropriate medical attention if needed.

Choice C rationale:

Absence seizures usually occur without warning or an aura. There is no specific warning sign before the onset of absence seizures, making this choice incorrect.

Choice D rationale:

Absence seizures have a sudden onset and offset without any warning signs, so they do not have a gradual onset. This information is incorrect regarding absence seizures.

A. Tachycardia B. Lacrimation C. Hypertension D. Urinary retention

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Urinary retention. Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause urinary retention by inhibiting bladder contractions and increasing sphincter tone. Urinary retention can lead to urinary tract infections, bladder distension, and renal impairment if not treated.

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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago. The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago.
The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?