A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.89%.
A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The client with epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities might be experiencing complications related to the epidural, such as epidural hematoma or nerve damage. However, the immediate concern is the client with a hip fracture and new onset of tachypnea. Tachypnea can indicate a pulmonary embolism or worsening respiratory status due to the fracture, both of which require urgent assessment and intervention.
Choice B rationale:
The client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.89% has a well-controlled blood glucose level. This condition does not require immediate attention compared to the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea, who might be experiencing a life-threatening complication.
Choice C rationale:
The client with a hip fracture and new onset of tachypnea is the priority for assessment. Tachypnea can be a sign of respiratory distress, which could indicate a pulmonary embolism or worsening lung function due to the fracture. Timely intervention is crucial to prevent further complications.
Choice D rationale:
The client with sinus arrhythmia and cardiac monitoring is stable and does not require immediate attention compared to the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration does not require immediate follow-up care. An induration at the injection site indicates a positive reaction, but further evaluation and management are necessary, not urgent.
Choice B rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care. The normal range for INR in a client taking warfarin is usually 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 1.8 suggests inadequate anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of thromboembolic events. Dose adjustment or other interventions are needed to bring the INR within the therapeutic range.
Choice C rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not necessarily require immediate follow-up care. However, sodium phosphate can cause electrolyte imbalances, so monitoring for any signs of electrolyte disturbances is essential, but it does not mandate urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking bumetanide with a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L requires follow-up care. The normal range for potassium is typically 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A potassium level below the normal range (hypokalemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. The client may need potassium supplements or dietary adjustments to correct the imbalance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Interlace the fingers while rubbing hands together. This is one of the steps of performing a surgical hand scrub, which is an antiseptic surgical scrub or antiseptic hand rub that is performed prior to donning surgical attire. Interlacing the fingers helps to remove microorganisms from the spaces between the fingers and under the nails.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today