A nurse is contacting the on-call healthcare provider about a patient who underwent a hysterectomy two days ago and is experiencing pain that is not alleviated by the prescribed opioid pain medication. Which statement constitutes the “Background” portion of the SBAR format for communication?
“I would like you to prescribe a different pain medication.”
“This patient underwent a vaginal hysterectomy two days ago.”
“The patient, D.A. Smith, has an aversion to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.”
“This patient has allergies to morphine and codeine.”
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
This statement belongs to the "Request" portion of the SBAR format. It articulates a specific action the nurse wants the healthcare provider to take.
It's not part of the Background because it doesn't provide any historical or contextual information about the patient's condition.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is the correct choice for the "Background" portion of the SBAR format.
It provides essential background information about the patient's recent medical history, specifically the recent hysterectomy.
This information is crucial for the healthcare provider to understand the context of the current situation and make informed decisions about pain management.
Choice C rationale:
This statement provides additional patient information, but it's not the most relevant for the Background section in this context.
The patient's aversion to NSAIDs might be important for medication choices, but it doesn't directly address the current issue of pain management after a hysterectomy.
Choice D rationale:
This statement provides important information about the patient's allergies, but it's not the most relevant for the Background section in this context.
Allergies are crucial for medication safety, but they don't directly address the current issue of pain management or provide context about the patient's recent surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Step 1 is (250 mL ÷ 90 min) × 10 gtt/mL. Step 2 is 2.78 mL/min × 10 gtt/mL. Step 3 is 27.78 gtt/min. Step 4 is approximately 28 gtt/min.
Final calculated answer: 28 gtt/min.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
A shift to the left in the white blood cell (WBC) count indicates an increased presence of immature neutrophils, known as bands. This is a hallmark sign of infection, as the body is rapidly producing and releasing these cells to fight off invading pathogens.
Prompt notification of the primary health care provider is crucial to initiate timely antibiotic therapy, if indicated. Early intervention with appropriate antibiotics can effectively combat the infection, prevent its progression, and potentially avert serious complications.
Delaying antibiotic treatment can allow the infection to worsen, potentially leading to sepsis, septic shock, or other life- threatening conditions.
Rationale for Choice B:
While informing the client about the significance of a shift to the left is important for education and understanding, it does not address the immediate need for medical intervention.
The priority action is to involve the primary health care provider for prompt assessment and potential initiation of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale for Choice C:
Documenting findings and continuing to monitor the client's condition is essential for ongoing assessment and evaluation, but it does not constitute a proactive intervention to address the underlying infection.
Documentation alone does not initiate treatment, and monitoring without intervention risks allowing the infection to progress.
Rationale for Choice D:
Protective isolation is not routinely indicated for clients with a shift to the left in their WBC count unless there is a specific concern for transmission of a highly contagious infection.
The decision to implement protective isolation measures would be based on the client's overall clinical presentation and potential infectious risks, as determined by the primary health care provider.
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