A patient diagnosed with HIV-II is admitted to the hospital presenting symptoms of fever, night sweats, and a severe cough.
The laboratory results show a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test conducted 4 days prior.
What is the first action the nurse should take?
Inform the primary health care provider about the CD4+ results.
Implement Airborne Precautions for the patient.
Initiate Droplet Precautions for the patient.
Provide care using Standard Precautions.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale for Choice A:
While it's important for the primary healthcare provider to be informed about the CD4+ results, it's not the first action the nurse should take. The priority is to implement appropriate infection control measures to protect the patient, other patients, and healthcare staff.
CD4+ cell count is a crucial indicator of the patient's immune status. A count of 180/mm is significantly low, suggesting a weakened immune system and increased vulnerability to infections. However, informing the provider alone doesn't directly address the immediate need for infection control.
Rationale for Choice B:
Airborne Precautions are specifically used for patients with known or suspected airborne infections, such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. These precautions involve the use of negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators.
In this case, the patient's TB skin test was negative, indicating no evidence of active tuberculosis infection. Implementing Airborne Precautions unnecessarily could lead to excessive resource utilization and potential stigmatization of the patient.
Rationale for Choice C:
Droplet Precautions are used for patients with infections that can be spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningococcal meningitis. These precautions involve the use of masks and eye protection.
While the patient's symptoms of fever, night sweats, and severe cough could be consistent with a droplet-spread infection, there's no definitive evidence to support this at the present time. Initiating Droplet Precautions without a clear indication could also lead to unnecessary resource use and potential anxiety for the patient.
Rationale for Choice D:
Standard Precautions are the foundation of infection control and should be used for all patients, regardless of their known or suspected infection status. These precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE) when indicated, and safe handling of sharps and bodily fluids.
By implementing Standard Precautions, the nurse can effectively minimize the risk of transmission of pathogens, protecting both the patient and other individuals in the healthcare setting. This is the most appropriate first action to ensure a safe and appropriate level of care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Skin and mucous membranes are the most effective and crucial barriers to infection. They provide a continuous physical barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. Here's a detailed explanation of their protective mechanisms:
1. Physical Barrier:
Skin: The outermost layer of skin, the epidermis, is composed of tightly packed cells that are difficult for pathogens to penetrate. It's also covered in a layer of sebum, an oily substance that helps to repel water and microorganisms.
Mucous membranes: These moist linings cover the openings of the body, such as the nose, mouth, eyes, and digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts. They produce mucus, a sticky substance that traps pathogens and prevents them from entering the body. Mucus also contains enzymes and antibodies that can kill certain pathogens.
2. Chemical Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes secrete a variety of substances that have antimicrobial properties. These include: Sebum: Contains fatty acids that can kill bacteria and fungi.
Sweat: Contains salt and lysozyme, an enzyme that can break down bacterial cell walls. Saliva: Contains enzymes that can break down food and kill bacteria.
Gastric acid: The highly acidic environment of the stomach kills most pathogens that are ingested.
3. Immune Barrier:
Skin and mucous membranes are home to a diverse community of microbes, known as the microbiome. These microbes play an important role in protecting against infection by competing with pathogens for resources and space.
Mucous membranes contain specialized immune cells, such as M cells and dendritic cells, that can recognize pathogens and initiate an immune response.
In contrast, the other choices are less effective barriers to infection:
Choice B: Gastrointestinal secretions, such as gastric acid, do play a role in preventing infection, but they are not as effective as skin and mucous membranes. Pathogens can still enter the body through the digestive tract, even in the presence of gastric acid.
Choice C: Colonization by host bacteria can actually help to protect against infection by competing with pathogens. However, it is not a primary barrier to infection.
Choice D: Inflammatory processes are a response to infection, not a barrier to it. They occur after pathogens have already entered the body.
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