The primary healthcare provider prescribes Hydroxychloroquine for a patient. What information should the nurse include when discussing this medication with the patient?

This medication may cause hair loss.

This medication may cause a burst of energy.

This medication should be taken on an empty stomach.

The most serious adverse effect of this medication is retinal damage.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale for Choice A:

Hydroxychloroquine does not typically cause hair loss as a significant side effect. While some anecdotal reports have suggested hair thinning as a possibility, it's not a well-established or common occurrence in clinical studies.

If a patient experiences hair loss while on hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to rule out other potential causes, such as underlying medical conditions, stress, or nutritional deficiencies.

It's also important to note that some individuals may have a personal predisposition to hair loss, and medications can sometimes trigger or exacerbate this issue.

Rationale for Choice B:

Hydroxychloroquine is not known to cause a burst of energy. In fact, some patients may experience fatigue or drowsiness as a side effect.

It's crucial to inform patients about potential side effects to manage expectations and promote adherence to treatment.

If a patient experiences unexpected energy changes while taking hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to report this to their healthcare provider for further evaluation.

Rationale for Choice C:

Hydroxychloroquine is generally recommended to be taken with food or milk to reduce potential gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting.

Taking it on an empty stomach could increase the risk of these side effects, which could impact medication adherence and effectiveness.

Rationale for Choice D:

Retinal damage is the most serious adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine. It can lead to irreversible vision loss if not detected and managed early.

Patients taking hydroxychloroquine must undergo regular eye examinations to monitor for any signs of retinal toxicity.

Early detection and prompt discontinuation of the medication can often prevent permanent vision loss.

It's crucial for nurses to educate patients about this potential risk and emphasize the importance of regular eye exams.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
A serum sodium level of 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L) is mildly low, but this level of hyponatremia is not typically associated with significant cognitive impairment.
Symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, lethargy, and seizures, usually occur when sodium levels are 125 mEq/L or lower.
However, it's important to monitor this patient for any changes in cognitive status as hyponatremia can worsen and lead to more severe symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A patient who underwent an open cholecystectomy two days ago may experience some cognitive impairment due to the effects of anesthesia and pain medications.
However, this type of impairment is usually temporary and resolves within a few days.
It's important to assess for cognitive impairment in this patient, but it is not the most urgent priority.
Choice D rationale:
A 32-year-old patient with a 20-pack-year history of smoking is at risk for cognitive impairment due to the long-term effects of smoking on the brain.
However, this risk is typically not as immediate as the risk of cognitive impairment following a stroke.
It's important to educate this patient about the risks of smoking and encourage smoking cessation, but it is not the most urgent priority in terms of cognitive assessment.
Choice B rationale:
An 88-year-old patient who had a hemorrhagic stroke three days ago is at the highest risk for cognitive impairment among the given options.
Hemorrhagic stroke involves bleeding in the brain, which can damage brain tissue and lead to cognitive deficits.
The risk of cognitive impairment is particularly high in older adults, as they may have less cognitive reserve to compensate for the damage caused by the stroke.
Early assessment and intervention for cognitive impairment are crucial for optimizing recovery and quality of life in stroke patients.
Prompt evaluation for cognitive impairment is essential to identify any deficits and initiate appropriate interventions to support the patient's cognitive function and recovery.

A. Elevate the head of the bed to 35-45 degrees unless contraindicated B. Assess Vital Signs C. Recheck MD orders post infusion D. Assess lung and heart sounds E. Obtain baseline weight F. Review labs post infusion

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Elevate the head of the bed to 35-45 degrees unless contraindicated:
Promotes venous return: Elevating the head of the bed reduces venous pooling in the lower extremities and promotes venous return to the heart. This helps to improve cardiac output and reduce the risk of fluid overload.
Reduces aspiration risk: Elevating the head of the bed also helps to prevent aspiration, as it keeps the head and neck in a more upright position. This allows for better drainage of secretions and reduces the chance of them entering the lungs.
Contraindications: There are a few contraindications to elevating the head of the bed, such as severe hypotension, head injury, or spinal injury. In these cases, the potential benefits of elevation must be weighed against the risks.
Choice B rationale:
Assess Vital Signs:
Baseline assessment: It's crucial to obtain baseline vital signs before administering any IV fluid to have a reference point for comparison. This allows for early detection of any changes that may indicate fluid overload or other complications.
Monitoring fluid status: Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, provide important information about the patient's fluid status and hemodynamic stability. Changes in vital signs can signal fluid overload, dehydration, or other problems that may require intervention.
Detecting adverse reactions: Vital signs can also help to detect adverse reactions to the IV fluid, such as allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Early identification of these reactions is essential for prompt treatment.
Choice D rationale:
Assess lung and heart sounds:
Baseline assessment: Assessing lung and heart sounds before IV fluid administration provides a baseline for comparison and helps to identify any preexisting conditions that may affect fluid tolerance.
Detecting fluid overload: Crackles in the lungs, increased heart rate, and extra heart sounds can indicate fluid overload, which can lead to pulmonary edema and heart failure.
Monitoring response to therapy: Lung and heart sounds can also be used to monitor the patient's response to IV fluid therapy. Improvement in lung sounds and heart rate can indicate a positive response to treatment.
Choice E rationale:
Obtain baseline weight:
Accurate fluid balance: Obtaining a baseline weight is essential for accurate assessment of fluid balance. It allows for tracking of fluid gains and losses and helps to prevent fluid overload or dehydration.
Monitoring fluid status: Changes in weight can reflect changes in fluid status. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, while weight loss can suggest dehydration.

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The primary healthcare provider prescribes Hydroxychloroquine for a patient. What information should the nurse include when discussing this medication with the patient?

Rationale for Choice A:

Rationale for Choice B:

Rationale for Choice C:

Rationale for Choice D:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

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