A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is in the latent phase of labor.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to manage the client's pain?
Encourage the client to listen to music.
Instruct the client how to use biofeedback.
Administer fentanyl 100 mcg every hour via intermittent intravenous bolus.
Request the provider administer a pudendal nerve block.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Encouraging the client to listen to music is an effective non-pharmacological pain management strategy in the latent phase of labor. Music provides a distraction, promotes relaxation, and can help to reduce the perception of pain by stimulating the release of endorphins, fostering a calmer environment and coping mechanism.
Choice B rationale
Instructing the client on biofeedback is a complex technique that requires training and practice for effective use. While it can be beneficial, the latent phase of labor may not be the ideal time to introduce and teach a new skill like biofeedback, as the client's focus may be limited by contractions and discomfort.
Choice C rationale
Administering fentanyl 100 mcg every hour via intermittent intravenous bolus is a pharmacological intervention typically used for more intense pain in active labor or for clients who desire or require stronger pain relief. The latent phase is characterized by milder, less frequent contractions, making non-pharmacological methods or lower-dose analgesics more appropriate.
Choice D rationale
Requesting a pudendal nerve block is usually reserved for the second stage of labor, specifically for episiotomy repair or forceps delivery, rather than for pain management during the latent phase. It provides regional anesthesia to the perineum and lower vagina, not generalized pain relief for uterine contractions in early labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The human body possesses compensatory mechanisms, such as sympathetic nervous system activation leading to vasoconstriction and increased heart rate, that can maintain vital organ perfusion despite significant blood loss. These mechanisms can mask overt signs of shock, such as hypotension, until approximately 20-25% of the total blood volume (around 1000-1250 mL in an average adult) has been acutely lost. This delay in visible manifestations can be critical in situations like postpartum hemorrhage, where rapid blood loss can occur.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock typically leads to a state of metabolic acidosis, not an increase in serum pH. This occurs due to inadequate tissue perfusion, resulting in anaerobic metabolism and the accumulation of lactic acid. The reduced oxygen delivery forces cells to switch from efficient aerobic respiration to less efficient anaerobic glycolysis, producing lactate as a byproduct, which lowers the blood pH. A normal serum pH range is 7.35 to 7.45.
Choice C rationale
While urine output is a valuable indicator of renal perfusion and overall circulatory status, it is not the most accurate or immediate indicator of *overall* organ perfusion. Other parameters like mental status, skin perfusion (capillary refill), and arterial blood pressure (MAP) provide more global and rapid assessments of tissue oxygenation. Urine output primarily reflects renal blood flow, which can be maintained by compensatory mechanisms even when other organs are hypoperfused. Normal urine output is generally considered to be 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr.
Choice D rationale
The standard resuscitation guideline for hemorrhagic shock is to administer 3 mL of isotonic crystalloid solution, such as lactated Ringer's, for every 1 mL of estimated blood loss. This 3: ratio accounts for the rapid redistribution of crystalloids from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, meaning that only about one-third remains within the vascular compartment to expand circulating blood volume effectively.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prior to IUD insertion, screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is crucial to prevent the introduction of pathogens into the upper reproductive tract. An untreated STI, particularly chlamydia or gonorrhea, can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) when an IUD is placed, as the device might facilitate the ascent of bacteria.
Choice B rationale
The duration of effectiveness for intrauterine devices varies depending on the type. Hormonal IUDs typically last for 3 to 8 years, while copper IUDs can remain effective for up to 10 years. Therefore, the statement that the device must be replaced every 2 years is incorrect and misleading for most available IUDs.
Choice C rationale
Irregular spotting and changes in menstrual bleeding patterns are common side effects during the initial months following IUD placement, particularly with hormonal IUDs. This is due to the local endometrial effects of progesterone release or the inflammatory reaction induced by copper, as the uterus adapts to the foreign body.
Choice D rationale
There is no medical contraindication to using tampons with an IUD. The IUD resides in the uterus, while tampons are inserted into the vaginal canal. There is no physical interaction or risk of dislodgement of the IUD by tampon use. Clients can continue their preferred menstrual hygiene products.
Choice E rationale
Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement before any medical procedure, including IUD insertion. The client must be provided with comprehensive information regarding the procedure, including its benefits, risks, alternatives, and potential side effects, to make an autonomous and voluntary decision.
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