A nurse is educating a client starting on risperidone. Which of the following statements best explains the unique pharmacological action of second-generation antipsychotics compared to first-generation antipsychotics?
They enhance dopamine transmission to improve cognitive function in schizophrenia.
They block dopamine and serotonin receptors, reducing extrapyramidal side effects.
They primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, leading to high rates of extrapyramidal symptoms.
They selectively block only serotonin receptors, improving mood without affecting dopamine.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Redirecting the sibling’s concern to the patient minimizes and dismisses the sibling’s anxiety. This is not therapeutic.
Choice B reason: Schizophrenia has a genetic component, especially in identical twins, but environment and other factors also play roles. This response provides accurate information while reducing unnecessary fear.
Choice C reason: Offering referral may be helpful later, but it does not immediately address the sibling’s expressed concern or provide reassurance.
Choice D reason: Saying there is a 50-50 chance is inaccurate and unnecessarily alarming. The risk is higher in identical twins but not absolute.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Long-term memory and emotional responses are primarily associated with the limbic system, particularly the hippocampus and amygdala, not the hypothalamus.
Choice B reason: Voluntary muscle control and reflexes are coordinated by the motor cortex and spinal cord, not the hypothalamus.
Choice C reason: Processing sensory input and initiating motor responses are functions of the thalamus and cerebral cortex. The hypothalamus is not directly responsible for this role.
Choice D reason: The hypothalamus regulates homeostasis, including body temperature, thirst, fluid balance, circadian rhythms, and hormone release. A tumor compressing this area explains the patient’s symptoms.
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