A nurse is educating a pregnant client about striae gravidarum. Which statement best explains the pathophysiology and risk factors associated with the development of these skin changes during pregnancy?
They occur exclusively in the third trimester due to rapid fetal growth, and their severity is unrelated to genetic or hormonal factors.
They develop due to the breakdown of elastin and collagen fibers in the dermis caused by mechanical stretching and hormonal influences.
Striae gravidarum are caused by autoimmune destruction of dermal tissue, commonly seen in women with preexisting autoimmune diseases.
Striae gravidarum result from increased collagen synthesis and thickening of the dermis due to elevated estrogen levels. making the skin more elastic.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Striae gravidarum can appear in the second or third trimester, not exclusively in the third. Their severity is strongly influenced by genetic predisposition, hormonal changes, and the degree of skin stretching rather than fetal growth.
B. Striae gravidarum result from dermal tearing as the skin stretches beyond its elastic capacity. Hormones such as cortisol and estrogen reduce fibroblast activity and collagen strength, predisposing the skin to rupture and forming stretch marks.
C. Striae gravidarum are caused by autoimmune destruction of dermal tissue, commonly seen in There is no autoimmune mechanism involved in the development of striae. They are purely structural and hormonal changes in the skin rather than immune-mediated conditions.
D. Striae actually result from decreased dermal elasticity and collagen integrity. Estrogen and glucocorticoids impair collagen synthesis, leading to thinning and tearing of the dermal layer instead of thickening.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)"]
Explanation
Pregnancy tests work by detecting the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is produced by trophoblastic cells of the developing placenta shortly after implantation. hCG maintains the corpus luteum, allowing continued secretion of progesterone to support the early pregnancy. Its levels rise rapidly in the first trimester, making it a reliable indicator of pregnancy in both urine and blood samples.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 4-2-5-6-1-3: This sequence places descent before engagement and flexion after engagement, which does not follow the typical progression of fetal movements during labor. Engagement usually occurs before descent.
B. 2-5-4-6-3-1: This order incorrectly places flexion before descent and extension after internal rotation, which does not align with the physiological process of vaginal birth. The fetus must descend before extension occurs.
C. 5-2-4-6-1-3: Starting with flexion before engagement is incorrect because engagement of the presenting part into the pelvis occurs prior to the fetus flexing its head. This disrupts the normal sequence of cardinal movements.
D. 2-4-5-6-1-3: Engagement occurs first as the fetal presenting part enters the pelvic inlet, followed by descent through the birth canal. Flexion of the fetal head allows passage through the pelvis, internal rotation aligns the head with the maternal pelvis, extension occurs as the head crowns, and external rotation completes the birth of the shoulders.
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