A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

primary dysmenorrhea.

endometriosis.

secondary dysmenorrhea.

PMS.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because primary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain that is not associated with any underlying condition. It usually begins with the onset of menstruation and lasts for a few days. It does not cause pain during intercourse or infertility.

Choice B reason: This is correct because endometriosis is a condition where the endometrial tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside the uterus, such as on the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or pelvic organs. It causes chronic inflammation, scarring, and adhesions that can result in severe pain during menstruation and intercourse, as well as infertility.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because secondary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain that is caused by an underlying condition, such as fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or adenomyosis. It usually develops later in life and lasts longer than primary dysmenorrhea. It may or may not cause pain during intercourse or infertility, depending on the condition.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because PMS stands for premenstrual syndrome, which is a group of physical and emotional symptoms that occur before menstruation. It may include mood swings, irritability, bloating, headaches, or breast tenderness. It does not cause severe pain during menstruation or intercourse, or infertility.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: HSV-2 is a viral infection that causes genital herpes. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can cause painful blisters and ulcers in the genital area. The primary infection is usually the most severe and lasts for several weeks. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate periodically, causing recurrent episodes of genital herpes. The frequency and severity of the recurrences vary from person to person.

Choice B reason: HPV is a viral infection that causes genital warts and cervical cancer. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can infect the skin and mucous membranes of the genital area. The primary infection is often asymptomatic and may clear spontaneously or persist for years. HPV does not cause recurrent episodes of genital warts or cervical cancer, but it can increase the risk of developing these conditions over time.

Choice C reason: CMV is a viral infection that causes flu-like symptoms and can affect various organs. It is transmitted through bodily fluids such as saliva, urine, blood, and semen. The primary infection is usually mild and may go unnoticed. After the primary infection, the virus remains latent in the body and can reactivate in people with weakened immune systems, causing serious complications. CMV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or organ damage, but it can worsen the condition of people with HIV or AIDS.

Choice D reason: HIV is a viral infection that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusion, or sharing of needles. The primary infection is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms and lasts for a few weeks. After the primary infection, the virus gradually destroys the immune system and makes the person vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers. HIV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or AIDS, but it can progress to AIDS over time.

A. Nonreactive B. Reactive C. Positive D. Negative

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Nonreactive is not the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR does not show adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A nonreactive NST means that the FHR does not increase by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia (low oxygen) or fetal sleep.

Choice B reason: Reactive is the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR shows adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A reactive NST means that the FHR increases by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period. A reactive NST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and healthy.

Choice C reason: Positive is not the correct result, as it is not used to describe the NST. Positive is a term used for the contraction stress test (CST), which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A positive CST means that the FHR shows late decelerations (decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends) with at least 50% of the contractions. A positive CST indicates uteroplacental insufficiency (a condition where the placenta does not deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus) and fetal distress.

Choice D reason: Negative is not the correct result, as it is also not used to describe the NST. Negative is another term used for the CST, which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A negative CST means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. A negative CST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor.

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A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

What is the result of a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The hormone responsible for maturation of mammary gland tissue is:

The nurse is caring for a woman who is at 24 weeks of gestation with suspected severe preeclampsia. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply)

What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman in her third trimester who complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated while her vital signs are being assessed?

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

What is the first action that the nurse should take when assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a woman at 30 weeks of gestation and finding a rate of 82 beats/min?

Which presumptive sign (felt by the woman) or probable sign (observed by the examiner) of pregnancy is not matched with another possible cause?