A nurse is educating a pregnant client about the Non-Stress Test (NST).
Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the test?
"NST is performed after 28 weeks of gestation or earlier if there are risk factors.".
"A nonreactive NST means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period.".
. "NST requires placing two belts with sensors on my abdomen: one to monitor the fetal heart rate and one to monitor the uterine contractions.".
"A reactive NST may indicate fetal hypoxia, distress, sleep, medication effect, or neurological abnormality.".
The Correct Answer is A
"NST is performed after 28 weeks of gestation or earlier if there are risk factors."12 This statement indicates that the client understands when and why an NST is done.
Choice B is wrong because it describes a reactive NST, not a nonreactive one.
A reactive NST means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period.2
Choice C is wrong because it confuses NST with contraction stress test (CST), which requires monitoring uterine contractions.
NST does not involve contractions.2
Choice D is wrong because it describes possible causes of a nonreactive NST, not a reactive one.
A nonreactive NST may indicate fetal hypoxia, distress, sleep, medication effect, or neurological abnormality.2
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Monitor fetal heart rate.
This is because cramping and vaginal bleeding after amniocentesis are signs of possible complications such as miscarriage, preterm labor, or injury to the fetus.
Monitoring fetal heart rate can help assess the well-being of the fetus and detect any signs of distress.
Choice A is wrong because administering Rho(D) immunoglobulin is only necessary if the mother has Rh-negative blood and the baby has Rh-positive blood, which can cause Rh sensitization.
This is not given routinely to all women who have amniocentesis.
Choice C is wrong because assessing maternal vital signs is not the first priority when there is a risk of fetal compromise.
Maternal vital signs can be affected by many factors and are not specific indicators of fetal health.
Choice D is wrong because obtaining an order for an ultrasound exam is not the first action to take.
An ultrasound exam can help confirm the diagnosis of complications such as placental abruption or fetal demise, but it requires time and equipment that might delay immediate intervention.
Monitoring fetal heart rate can be done quickly and easily at the bedside.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because cramping and vaginal bleeding after an amniocentesis may indicate a possible miscarriage or placental abruption, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and perfusion.
Monitoring fetal heart rate can help detect signs of fetal distress and guide further interventions.
Choice A is wrong because administering Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for Rh-negative mothers who undergo amniocentesis to prevent isoimmunization, but it is not a priority action in this scenario.
Choice C is wrong because assessing maternal vital signs is important to monitor for signs of infection, hemorrhage, or shock, but it is not as urgent as monitoring fetal well-being.
Choice D is wrong because obtaining an order for an ultrasound exam can help confirm the diagnosis and evaluate the placenta and amniotic fluid, but it is not the first action to take in this situation.
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