A nurse is monitoring a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following complications should the nurse prioritize?
Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
Constipation
Weight loss
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Hyperglycemia is a priority complication of TPN due to high dextrose content, which can overwhelm glucose metabolism, especially in stressed or diabetic patients. Elevated blood glucose increases infection risk, impairs wound healing, and may lead to osmotic diuresis, causing dehydration. Monitoring and insulin administration are critical to manage this metabolic complication.
Choice B reason: Hypokalemia can occur with TPN if potassium is inadequately supplemented, but it is less common than hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are tailored to include electrolytes, and hypokalemia is typically prevented with monitoring. While significant, it is not the primary concern compared to hyperglycemia, which has broader systemic effects in TPN patients.
Choice C reason: Constipation is not a direct complication of TPN, as it bypasses the gastrointestinal tract. Lack of oral intake may reduce bowel motility, but this is secondary to metabolic complications like hyperglycemia. Managing blood glucose and electrolytes takes precedence, as constipation is less immediately life-threatening and can be addressed with other interventions.
Choice D reason: Weight loss is not a typical complication of TPN, which is designed to provide adequate calories and nutrients to prevent catabolism and promote weight gain in malnourished patients. Hyperglycemia or infection from TPN is a greater concern, as weight loss would indicate inadequate caloric delivery, not a primary complication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Frequent bowel movements are not typical in peritonitis. Inflammation of the peritoneal cavity causes ileus, reducing bowel motility and leading to constipation or obstipation. Peristalsis slows due to irritation, and the body diverts energy to combat infection, making diarrhea unlikely unless another condition, like gastroenteritis, is present, which is not indicated here.
Choice B reason: A rigid abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis due to peritoneal inflammation causing muscle guarding and rigidity. The peritoneal irritation from infection or chemical irritants (e.g., bile, gastric contents) triggers involuntary abdominal wall contraction to protect inflamed tissues, resulting in a board-like abdomen, often with severe pain.
Choice C reason: Decreased urinary output occurs in peritonitis due to systemic inflammation and potential hypovolemia from fluid shifts into the peritoneal cavity (third-spacing). The kidneys receive reduced perfusion, activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to oliguria. This reflects the body’s attempt to conserve fluid in response to systemic stress and inflammation.
Choice D reason: Inability to pass stools is expected in peritonitis due to paralytic ileus, where intestinal motility ceases from inflammation. Peritoneal irritation disrupts normal peristalsis, causing bowel obstruction symptoms like constipation or obstipation. This results from the body’s inflammatory response inhibiting gastrointestinal function, leading to stool retention.
Choice E reason: Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typical in peritonitis. The condition causes paralytic ileus, reducing or absent bowel sounds due to decreased peristalsis from peritoneal inflammation. Hyperactive sounds may occur in early mechanical obstruction but not in peritonitis, where inflammation halts bowel motility, leading to hypoactive or absent sounds.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, reduces inflammation in anaphylaxis by inhibiting immune responses. However, its onset is slow, taking hours to act, making it unsuitable as the first-line treatment for acute anaphylactic shock. It is used as an adjunct to stabilize symptoms after epinephrine addresses immediate life-threatening bronchoconstriction and hypotension.
Choice B reason: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock. It acts rapidly via alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and hypotension. It constricts blood vessels, increases cardiac output, and relaxes airway smooth muscles, alleviating life-threatening symptoms like airway obstruction and shock, making it critical for immediate administration.
Choice C reason: Dobutamine, a beta-agonist, enhances cardiac contractility and is used in cardiogenic shock. It does not address the histamine-mediated vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, or angioedema in anaphylaxis. Its use could worsen hypotension by increasing cardiac demand without correcting the underlying immune-mediated mechanisms, making it inappropriate for this emergency.
Choice D reason: Furosemide, a diuretic, treats fluid overload in conditions like heart failure. In anaphylactic shock, it would exacerbate hypotension by reducing intravascular volume, worsening tissue perfusion. Anaphylaxis involves histamine-induced vascular leak, not fluid overload, so furosemide is contraindicated and would not address the acute airway or cardiovascular symptoms.
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