A nurse is preparing to administer an osmotic diuretic IV to a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the purpose of the medication?
Reduce edema of the brain.
Increase cell size in the brain.
Expand extracellular fluid volume.
Provide fluid hydration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, works by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not increase, the cell size in the brain by removing fluid from the intracellular space.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not expand, the extracellular fluid volume by increasing the urine output and excreting excess fluid from the body.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would not provide fluid hydration, but rather cause fluid loss and dehydration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because a client who is short of breath is in immediate danger, as it indicates a possible respiratory compromise or failure. The nurse should assess the client's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and lung sounds, and provide oxygen therapy as needed.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's pain has been managed and the medication has had time to take effect.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition is stable and the diagnostic test is not urgent.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has a prescription for discharge is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition has improved and the client is ready to leave the hospital.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Observing for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site is important, but not the first action that the nurse should take. CSF leaks can indicate a breach in the dura mater, which can increase the risk of infection and meningitis. The nurse should inspect the dressing and the nose and ears for any clear or bloody drainage, and report any findings to the provider. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion.
Choice B Reason: The first action the nurse should take when caring for a client post-evacuation of a subdural hematoma is to check the oximeter to ensure adequate oxygenation. Maintaining proper oxygenation is a priority because hypoxia and hypercapnia can lead to cerebral vasodilation, increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) and worsening neurological outcomes.Key Concept: Always prioritize Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABCs) when determining the most immediate nursing intervention.
Choice C Reason: Assessing for an increase in temperature is another important action, but not the first one that the nurse should take. An increase in temperature can indicate an infection, inflammation, or damage to the hypothalamus, which can affect the thermoregulation of the body. The nurse should monitor the temperature and administer antipyretics as prescribed. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion.
Choice D Reason:This is crucial, but oxygenation status should be checked first since low oxygen levels can worsen ICP.
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