A nurse is preparing to administer an osmotic diuretic IV to a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the purpose of the medication?
Reduce edema of the brain.
Increase cell size in the brain.
Expand extracellular fluid volume.
Provide fluid hydration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, works by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not increase, the cell size in the brain by removing fluid from the intracellular space.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not expand, the extracellular fluid volume by increasing the urine output and excreting excess fluid from the body.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would not provide fluid hydration, but rather cause fluid loss and dehydration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because fluid overload is a condition of excess fluid volume in the body. A client who has fluid overload is more likely to have a high CVP, which indicates increased pressure in the right atrium and vena cava.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an intracardiac shunt is a condition of abnormal blood flow between the chambers of the heart. A client who has an intracardiac shunt may have a normal or high CVP, depending on the direction and magnitude of the shunt.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because hypovolemia is a condition of low fluid volume in the body. A client who has hypovolemia is more likely to have a low CVP, which indicates decreased pressure in the right atrium and vena cava.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because left ventricular failure is a condition of impaired pumping function of the left ventricle. A client who has left ventricular failure may have a normal or high CVP, depending on the degree of backward failure and pulmonary congestion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because cognitive impairment that decreases over several months post-injury is more likely to occur in a client who has a diffuse axonal injury, which is a widespread damage to the brain's white mater.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because neurologic deficits that increase up to 2 weeks post-injury are more likely to occur in a client who has a subdural hematoma, which is a collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid membranes.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a change in the level of consciousness that develops over 48 hr is more likely to occur in a client who has an intracerebral hematoma, which is a collection of blood within the brain tissue.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a lucid period followed by an immediate loss of consciousness is a typical manifestation of an epidural hematoma, which is a collection of blood between the skull and the dura. The lucid period occurs when the initial bleeding stops and the client regains consciousness. The immediate loss of consciousness occurs when the bleeding resumes and causes increased intracranial pressure.
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