A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which of the following clients first?
A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), has total cholesterol of 318 mg/dL, and is prescribed atorvastatin
A client who has pneumonia, a WBC count of 11,500/mm³, and is prescribed piperacillin
A client who has renal failure, a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L, and is prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
A client who has anemia, hemoglobin of 11 g/dL, and is prescribed epoetin alfa
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that forms in a cerebral artery, usually due to atherosclerosis. It typically occurs gradually and does not cause a sudden, severe headache or seizure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels from another part of the body, such as the heart, to a cerebral artery. It usually occurs abruptly and does not cause vomiting or fever.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a transient ischemic atack (TIA) is caused by a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent brain damage or loss of consciousness.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, resulting in bleeding into the brain tissue or the subarachnoid space. It usually causes a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and loss of consciousness. It can also cause elevated blood pressure, fever, and increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Dobutamine is a positive inotropic agent that increases the contractility of the heart and improves cardiac output. This leads to increased renal perfusion and urine output, which reduces the fluid overload and edema associated with heart failure. Therefore, this choice is correct.
Choice B Reason: Dobutamine does not have a direct effect on blood glucose level. It may cause hyperglycemia as a side effect, but this is not an indication of its effectiveness. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice C Reason: Dobutamine may cause a slight decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation, but this is not its main therapeutic effect. A significant decrease in blood pressure may indicate hypovolemia, hypotension, or shock, which are adverse effects of dobutamine. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice D Reason: Dobutamine also has a positive chronotropic effect, which means it increases the heart rate. However, this is not a desired outcome for a client with heart failure, as it increases the oxygen demand of the heart and may worsen the condition. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
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