The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has a chest tube connected to suction and a water seal drainage system. Which of the following indicates to the nurse that the chest tube is functioning properly?
Equal amount of fluid drainage in each collection chamber
Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber
Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber
Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: Equal amount of fluid drainage in each collection chamber is not a sign of proper chest tube function. The amount of fluid drainage depends on the type and extent of the client's injury or surgery, and may vary from one chamber to another.
Choice B Reason: Fluctuation of the fluid level in the water seal chamber (tidaling) indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly. This fluctuation corresponds with the client's respirations and shows that air or fluid is being effectively removed from the pleural space.
Choice C Reason:Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which is not normal unless the client has a pneumothorax and air is being evacuated. Otherwise, it suggests a problem with the system.
Choice D Reason: Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing is not a sign of proper chest tube function. It may indicate that the chest tube is obstructed, kinked, or clamped, or that the suction is not working properly. The nurse should assess and troubleshoot the chest tube system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because administering a nitrate antihypertensive is not the first action, as it may cause a rapid drop in blood pressure and worsen the client's condition.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because obtaining the client's heart rate is not the first action, as it does not address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia or relieve the symptoms.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because assessing the client for bladder distention is not the first action, as it may take time and delay the treatment of autonomic dysreflexia.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because placing the client in a high-Fowler's position is the first action, as it lowers the blood pressure by promoting venous return and reducing cardiac preload.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client is not unconscious, as the GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the lowest possible score and indicating deep coma or death.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the client can follow simple motor commands, as the GCS score for best motor response is 5, which means the client can localize pain by moving his limbs away from the source of stimulation.To interpret the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score provided in the scenario:Eye Opening (E): 3 - The client opens their eyes in response to verbal stimuli.Best Verbal Response (V): 5 - The client is oriented and able to engage in coherent conversation.Best Motor Response (M): 5 - The client can localize pain or follow motor commands (depending on additional context). The total GCS score would be 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, indicating a mild level of impairment or responsiveness.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the client is able to make vocal sounds, as the GCS score for best verbal response is 5, which means the client can orient himself to person, place, and time.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client does not open his eyes when spoken to, as the GCS score for eye opening is 3, which means the client only opens his eyes in response to pain.
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