A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer to the client?
(Round to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["2"]
To determine how many tablets of digoxin 0.125 mg are needed to administer a total dose of 0.25 mg, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet:
0.25 mg (desired dose) ÷ 0.125 mg (dose per tablet) = 2 tablets
Therefore, the nurse should administer 2 tablets of digoxin 0.125 mg to the client to achieve a total dose of 0.25 mg.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "This medication will not break down clots but will make it less likely that the clot will get larger." Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. It does not directly break down existing clots but prevents the formation of new clots and the extension of existing ones. This response provides accurate information about the mechanism of action of warfarin.
B. "It will break down the clot within 8 to 12 hours of administration." This statement is incorrect. Warfarin does not have an immediate effect on existing clots. Its action is primarily preventive, reducing the risk of further clot formation and allowing the body's natural processes to gradually break down existing clots over time.
C. "It will take 7 to 10 days for the clot to break down." While the body's natural processes may start breaking down the clot within this timeframe, warfarin itself does not directly cause the dissolution of clots. This response is partially accurate in terms of the timeline for the body's natural clot resolution but does not specify that warfarin itself is not responsible for clot breakdown.
D. "You will need to be on this medication for a long time before it will break down the clot." This statement is misleading. Warfarin's role is to prevent the formation of new clots and further extension of existing ones rather than directly breaking down clots. Additionally, the duration of warfarin therapy is typically determined based on the individual's risk factors for clot formation, and it may not necessarily correlate with the time it takes for existing clots to resolve.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Trombin (Evithrom): Incorrect: Thrombin (also known as factor IIa) is not typically used as a hemostatic drug. It is involved in the final step of the coagulation cascade, converting fibrinogen to fibrin to form a stable clot. However, it is not administered directly as a medication.
B. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar): Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent commonly used to control bleeding. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of fibrin clots, thus promoting hemostasis. It is particularly useful in situations where excessive bleeding occurs due to impaired clot dissolution. However, tranexamic acid is generally considered more potent and has a longer-lasting effect, making it the preferred choice in many situations.
C. Aspirin: Incorrect: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. While it can reduce the risk of clot formation, it is not primarily used for controlling postoperative bleeding.
D. Tranexamic acid (Cyklokapron): Correct: Tranexamic acid is another antifibrinolytic agent that helps prevent excessive bleeding. It works by blocking the breakdown of fibrin clots. Tranexamic acid is commonly used in surgical settings to manage bleeding during and after procedures.
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