A nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of penicillin G IM to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an indication of an allergic reaction following the injection?
Pallor.
Bradycardia.
Urticaria.
Dyspepsia.
The Correct Answer is C
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin. An allergic reaction is an abnormal response of the immune system to the drug. Other signs and symptoms of penicillin allergy may include skin rash, itching, fever, swelling, shortness of breath, wheezing, runny nose, itchy eyes, and anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a rare but life-threatening condition that affects multiple body systems and requires immediate emergency treatment.
Choice A is wrong because pallor is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Pallor means pale skin and may be caused by other conditions such as anemia or shock.
Choice B is wrong because bradycardia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Bradycardia means slow heart rate and may be caused by other conditions such as heart block or medication side effects.
Choice D is wrong because dyspepsia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Dyspepsia means indigestion and may be caused by other conditions such as gastritis or peptic ulcer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
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Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Injecting air into the NPH vial first helps to equalize the pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the insulin later. This step is done first to avoid contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.This also helps to equalize the pressure and makes it easier to withdraw the insulin.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: The nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first because it is clear and not contaminated. This prevents any NPH insulin from mixing into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Finally, the nurse withdraws the NPH insulin. Since the regular insulin has already been drawn up, there is no risk of contaminating the regular insulin with NPH insulin.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
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