A nurse is caring for a client who is in shock and is receiving an infusion of albumin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Decrease in protein.

Increase in BP.

Oxygen saturation 96%.

PaCO2, 30 mm Hg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Albumin is a protein that helps maintain fluid balance in the body by drawing water into the blood vessels. Albumin infusion can increase the blood volume and blood pressure in patients who are in shock due to fluid loss or sepsis.

Choice A is wrong because albumin infusion does not decrease protein levels in the body.

Albumin is a protein itself and adding it to the blood increases the protein concentration.

Choice C is wrong because oxygen saturation of 96% is normal and does not indicate any improvement or deterioration in the patient’s condition.

Choice D is wrong because PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg is low and indicates respiratory alkalosis, which can be caused by hyperventilation, fever, or anxiety. Albumin infusion does not affect PaCO2 levels directly.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.

Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.

Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.

Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.

Naloxone IV can cause

A. Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. B. MS6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. C. MSO4 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. D. Morphine 6.0 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is because it uses the full name of the drug, the exact dose, the route of administration, the frequency, and the indication for use. It also avoids any abbreviations that could be confused with other drugs or measurements.

Choice B is wrong because MS is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate which could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.

Choice C is wrong because MSO4 is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate that could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.

Choice D is wrong because 6.0 mg could be misread as 60 mg and lead to a tenfold overdose.

Normal ranges for morphine dosage depend on the route of administration, the indication, and the patient’s tolerance and response.

For acute pain, the usual oral dose is 10 to 30 mg every 4 hours as needed. For chronic pain, the usual oral dose is 15 to 30 mg every 8 to 12 hours as needed.

For intravenous (IV) administration, the usual dose is 2.5 to 15 mg every 4 hours as needed.

The morphine equivalent daily dose (MEDD) is a concept that attempts to establish an equivalency in terms of dose when comparing any opioid to morphine.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in shock and is receiving an infusion of albumin. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in shock and is receiving an infusion of albumin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?