A nurse is providing a community health education class about suicide prevention. Which of the following should the nurse identify as risk factors for suicide? (Select all that apply).
Female gender
Currently married
Age greater than 45 years old
Substance use disorder
Schizophrenia: Correct
Correct Answer : C,D,E
A. Female gender: Incorrect
While the risk of attempted suicide is generally higher in females, completed suicide rates are higher in males. Therefore, being female is not typically considered a primary risk factor for suicide, though it's important to note that both genders require attention for prevention.
B. Currently married: Incorrect
Being married is generally considered a protective factor against suicide. Social support and close relationships tend to reduce the risk of suicidal behavior.
C. Age greater than 45 years old: correct
Suicide risk tends to increase with age, particularly for men. Individuals over 45, especially those facing chronic illness, social isolation, or significant life changes, are at higher risk.
D. Substance use disorder: Correct
Substance use disorder is a significant risk factor for suicide. Substance abuse can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair, impair judgment, and lower inhibitions, increasing the likelihood of suicidal behavior.
E. Schizophrenia: Correct
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder associated with an increased risk of suicide. The symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations, delusions, and feelings of isolation, can contribute to severe distress and increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behaviors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["24"]
Explanation
To calculate the mL/hr for the heparin infusion, you can use the formula:
mL/hr = (Total units required per hour) / (Units/mL in the solution)
Given:
Total units required per hour = 1,200 U/hr
Units/mL in the solution = 25,000 U / 500 mL = 50 U/mL
Plugging in the values:
mL/hr = (1,200 U/hr) / (50 U/mL)
mL/hr = 24 mL/hr (rounded to the nearest tenth)
Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 24 mL/hr for the heparin infusion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This action might be premature. MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) are a class of antidepressants with specific dietary and medication interactions. They are typically considered when other classes of antidepressants have not been effective. It's important to exhaust other options before considering a switch to MAOIs.
B. Explain that antidepressants often take several weeks to be fully effective:
Explanation: Correct Answer. This is an appropriate response. Antidepressants, including citalopram, can take several weeks to show their full therapeutic effects. It's common for some symptoms to improve before others. Educating the client about the delayed onset of action is important to manage their expectations.
C. Tell the client that the provider will need to change citalopram to a different medication:
Explanation: It might be too early to consider changing the medication after just two weeks, especially since the client reports an improved appetite. Changes in dosage or medication should ideally be discussed with the provider after an adequate trial period.
D. Recommend a sleep study be done on the client:
Explanation: While sleep problems can be associated with depression, it might not be the most appropriate next step based solely on the information provided. It's more important to address the ongoing depressive symptoms before focusing solely on sleep.
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