A nurse is providing discharge planning for a client who has just been diagnosed as being in the early stage of rheumatoid arthritis and starting methotrexate. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Monitor for symptoms of anemia

Expect an increase in appetite while on the medication

Rotate the site of the patch application

Anticipate relief of symptoms in 1-2 weeks

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Monitoring for symptoms of anemia is essential as methotrexate can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. The nurse should instruct the client to report symptoms like fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath.
B. Methotrexate is more likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects like nausea and loss of appetite rather than an increase in appetite.
C. Methotrexate is typically administered orally or by injection, not via a patch, so rotating the site of patch application is not relevant.
D. Relief of symptoms from methotrexate generally takes several weeks to months. It is important to set realistic expectations about the timeline for symptom improvement.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.

A. Surgical intervention B. Corticosteroid eye drops C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.

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A nurse is providing discharge planning for a client who has just been diagnosed as being in the early stage of rheumatoid arthritis and starting methotrexate. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect their vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this client's care?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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