An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?
"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."
"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."
The Correct Answer is C
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Performing hand hygiene before, during, and after direct contact with the client is the most effective strategy for preventing the transmission of infections. Hand hygiene interrupts the transmission of pathogens and is a cornerstone of infection control practices.
B. Changing the client's bed linens each day is a standard practice for maintaining cleanliness but does not specifically prevent infection transmission. The primary goal of infection control is to reduce pathogen transmission rather than just maintaining general cleanliness.
C. Controlling the client's blood glucose level is important for overall health and wound healing but does not directly prevent infection transmission. It is not an infection control strategy.
D. Placing the client in a room with positive-pressure airflow is used to protect immunocompromised patients from infections by preventing outside air from entering the room. However, it is not appropriate for preventing the transmission of an infection from a client to others.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Protective isolation is not directly related to the symptoms of ecchymoses and petechiae but is more relevant for preventing infections in immunocompromised clients.
B. Measures to prevent venous thromboembolism are not the immediate concern given the bleeding symptoms; instead, managing platelet levels and bleeding risks is more critical.
C. Droplet precautions are not indicated based on the described symptoms, which are more related to bleeding disorders rather than infectious conditions requiring droplet precautions.
D. Checking the client's most recent platelet level is the most appropriate action because ecchymoses and petechiae are signs of potential thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which is common in leukemia. Monitoring platelet levels will help determine if there is a need for interventions to address bleeding risks.
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