A nurse is caring for a 55-year-old client who requires antibiotic therapy.
A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record. Select the 4 findings that place the client at risk for hearing impairment.
Osteoarthritis
Place of employment
Gentamycin
Naproxen
Bumetanide
Heart failure
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
A. Osteoarthritis is not associated with hearing loss
B. The client's place of employment as a firearms instructor at a shooting range exposes them to loud noises, which is a well-known risk factor for hearing loss.
C. Gentamycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can be ototoxic, especially when administered in high doses or for prolonged periods, potentially leading to hearing loss.
D. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has been associated with an increased risk of hearing loss, particularly when taken regularly or in high doses.
E. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that can also have ototoxic effects, especially when used in conjunction with aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamycin.
F. Heart failure is not associated with hearing loss
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Consulting with a healthcare provider before taking over-the-counter medications is appropriate, as some medications can affect blood glucose levels or interact with diabetes medications.
B. It is crucial for clients with diabetes to continue taking insulin during illness, even if they are unable to eat. Insulin needs may increase due to stress or infection, and not taking insulin could lead to hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking blood sugar every 2 hours is correct, but insulin should not be omitted.
C. Calling the doctor if the illness lasts longer than 2 days is a good practice, as prolonged illness can affect diabetes management and may require medical intervention.
D. Calling the doctor if blood sugar is over 250 mg/dL or if there is protein in the urine is appropriate, as these conditions can indicate complications that need medical attention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A positive Western blot test confirms the diagnosis of HIV, but it is not concerning once the diagnosis has been established.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 505 cells/mm³ is low but not critically low. While it does indicate immunosuppression, it is not the most concerning value presented.
C. A platelet count of 115,000/mm³ is lower than normal and may indicate a risk for bleeding, but it is not as concerning as a critically low white blood cell count.
D. A WBC count of 800/mm³ is severely low and indicates a high risk for infection, which is particularly concerning in a client with HIV, as it suggests significant immunosuppression and vulnerability to opportunistic infections.
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