A nurse is providing information about contraceptives to a couple. Which contraceptive method provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases?
oral contraceptives
tubal ligation
male or female condoms
Intrauterine device
The Correct Answer is C
A. Oral contraceptives: Oral contraceptives regulate hormonal cycles to prevent ovulation and pregnancy but do not provide any barrier to infectious agents. They offer no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including HIV, chlamydia, or gonorrhea.
B. Tubal ligation: Tubal ligation is a permanent surgical method that blocks the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy. While highly effective for contraception, it does not prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted infections because it does not provide a barrier between partners.
C. Male or female condoms: Condoms act as a physical barrier preventing the exchange of bodily fluids during sexual activity, reducing the risk of pregnancy and transmission of STIs. Correct and consistent use significantly lowers exposure to pathogens such as HIV, HPV, chlamydia, and gonorrhea.
D. Intrauterine device: IUDs, whether hormonal or copper, provide long-term prevention of pregnancy by affecting implantation or sperm motility. They do not protect against STIs, as they do not prevent contact with infectious secretions during sexual activity.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increase the progress of labor: Magnesium sulfate does not stimulate uterine contractions or accelerate labor. Its pharmacologic action primarily affects neuromuscular excitability rather than uterine contractility.
B. Decrease blood pressure: While magnesium sulfate may have a mild vasodilatory effect, it is not used as a primary antihypertensive in preeclampsia. Blood pressure management typically involves medications such as labetalol, hydralazine, or nifedipine.
C. Prevent seizures: Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and blocks neuromuscular transmission, reducing the risk of eclampsia by preventing seizure activity in clients with severe preeclampsia. It is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis during pregnancy.
D. Prevent contractions: Although magnesium sulfate has some tocolytic properties at high doses, its standard use in preeclampsia is for seizure prevention rather than inhibition of labor, and it is not the first-line agent for stopping preterm contractions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. “I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year”: After evacuation of a molar pregnancy, pregnancy must be avoided for at least 6 to 12 months to allow monitoring of hCG levels and ensure remission. Rising hCG from a new pregnancy would interfere with detecting persistent trophoblastic disease.
B. “My intake of iron will have to be closely monitored for 6 months.”: Iron supplementation may be needed if anemia is present, but it is not the primary focus of post-molar pregnancy management. Ongoing care centers on serial hCG monitoring rather than nutritional intake.
C. “My blood pressure will continue to be increased for about 6 more months.”: Hypertension related to molar pregnancy typically resolves after evacuation. Persistent elevated blood pressure is not an expected long-term outcome.
D. “I won’t use my birth control pills for at least a year or two.”: Hormonal contraception is recommended after a molar pregnancy to prevent conception during hCG surveillance. Avoiding birth control pills increases the risk of pregnancy and complicates follow-up.
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