A nurse is providing teaching about the expected effects of magnesium sulfate to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
This medication increases cardiac output
This medication stabilizes the fetal heart rate
The medication improves tissue perfusion
The medication prevents seizures
The Correct Answer is D
A. This medication increases cardiac output: Magnesium sulfate does not typically increase cardiac output. Its primary role in the context of preeclampsia is to prevent seizures and manage hypertension.
B. This medication stabilizes the fetal heart rate: While magnesium sulfate can have a relaxing effect on the uterus, which might indirectly influence fetal heart rate, its primary purpose in preeclampsia is seizure prevention rather than fetal heart rate stabilization.
C. The medication improves tissue perfusion: Magnesium sulfate primarily functions as an anticonvulsant and tocolytic (relaxes the uterus). While its effects on vasodilation can contribute to improved blood flow, the primary indication in preeclampsia is seizure prevention.
D. The medication prevents seizures
Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in the management of preeclampsia to prevent seizures (eclampsia), a serious complication of the condition. It has anticonvulsant properties and is the primary medication for seizure prophylaxis in pregnant individuals with preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hot flashes: Hot flashes are not a typical adverse effect of terbutaline. Hot flashes are more commonly associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during menopause.
B. Heart palpitations: This is the correct answer. Terbutaline can stimulate beta-2 receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate and palpitations. Clients receiving terbutaline should be monitored for cardiac side effects.
C. Shortness of breath: While terbutaline is used to relax smooth muscles, it can also affect beta-2 receptors in the respiratory system. However, shortness of breath is not a common adverse effect and may indicate other respiratory issues.
D. Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not a typical adverse effect of terbutaline. The medication is more likely to increase heart rate due to its beta-2 adrenergic agonist properties.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Urinary output 40 mL/hr: Decreased urinary output can be an indicator of inadequate fluid intake or other issues, but it is not a specific sign of hemorrhage.
B. Blood pressure 88/40 mm Hg: This is the correct answer. A low blood pressure, especially with a low diastolic pressure, can be indicative of hypovolemic shock, which may result from postpartum hemorrhage. Hemorrhage leads to a decrease in circulating blood volume, causing a drop in blood pressure.
C. Moderate rubra lochia: Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge experienced after childbirth, and moderate rubra lochia is considered within the expected range for the early postpartum period. It is not a specific sign of hemorrhage.
D. Heart rate 90/min: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is within the normal range for a postpartum client and may not be a specific sign of hemorrhage. However, an increase in heart rate could be an early indicator of hypovolemia due to hemorrhage.
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