A nurse is providing teaching to a female client who has herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I will take three sitz baths a week to relieve my discomfort.".
"I should cleanse my lesions with 1/2 strength peroxide.".
"I will avoid sexual activity until my lesions are healed.".
"I am not contagious once I begin antiviral medication.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Taking sitz baths can provide comfort but will not directly address the transmission of herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). It is essential to avoid sexual activity during outbreaks to prevent spreading the infection to a partner.
Choice B rationale:
Cleansing lesions with 1/2 strength peroxide may irritate the affected area and delay healing. The recommended approach is to use gentle soap and water to clean the lesions.
Choice C rationale:
"I will avoid sexual activity until my lesions are healed.”. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because HSV-2 is highly contagious during active outbreaks. Avoiding sexual activity during this time is essential to prevent transmitting the virus to a partner.
Choice D rationale:
"I am not contagious once I begin antiviral medication.”. This statement is incorrect as antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks but do not eliminate the risk of transmission entirely. The virus remains contagious until lesions are completely healed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated WBC count (11,000/mm²) in a client starting treatment for MRSA infection may indicate an inflammatory response, but it is expected in this scenario, and the priority is not as high as other critical lab values.
Choice B rationale:
A serum pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common complication that can lead to metabolic acidosis. This lab result is a priority as it requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
Hematocrit of 26% in a client with sickle cell disease might be low, but it is not the priority over the critically abnormal lab value of serum pH in option B.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.032 in a client diagnosed with dehydration is elevated, indicating concentrated urine due to dehydration. While dehydration is concerning, it is not as high-priority as the potentially life-threatening acidosis in option B.
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