A nurse is reviewing a client’s cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
Atrial fibrillation.
Complete heart block.
First-degree atrioventricular block.
Premature atrial complexes.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip. In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Absence seizures are brief, sudden lapses of consciousness that usually last a few seconds. They are more common in children than in adults.
A person having an absence seizure may stare blankly into space and not respond to others. They may also have subtle movements such as lip smacking or eyelid fluttering.
Choice B is wrong because absence seizures typically last less than 15 seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds.
Choice C is wrong because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.
Choice D is wrong because absence seizures do not have an aura prior to onset. An aura is a warning sign that some people experience before a seizure, such as a strange feeling, smell, or vision.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can relieve chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia. The nurse should administer it as soon as possible to improve blood flow to the heart and reduce the risk of myocardial infarction. The nurse should also monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate after giving nitroglycerin, as it can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
Choice A is wrong because checking a STAT cardiac troponin is not the first priority.
Cardiac troponin is a biomarker that indicates myocardial injury, but it may not rise until several hours after the onset of chest pain.
Therefore, it is not useful for immediate diagnosis or treatment of acute coronary syndrome. Choice B is wrong because requesting a prescription for a beta-blocker is not the first priority.
Beta-blockers are medications that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, and reduce the oxygen demand of the heart.
They can prevent or reduce the recurrence of chest pain and complications of acute coronary syndrome, but they are not indicated for immediate relief of chest pain.
Choice D is wrong because administering oxygen is not the first priority.
Oxygen therapy can increase the oxygen supply to the heart and reduce ischemia, but it is not necessary for all clients with chest pain.
Oxygen therapy should be based on the client’s oxygen saturation level and clinical condition.
If the client’s oxygen saturation is normal or high, oxygen therapy may not be beneficial and may even be harmful.
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