A nurse is reviewing a client’s cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
Atrial fibrillation.
Complete heart block.
First-degree atrioventricular block.
Premature atrial complexes.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip. In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This statement should be included in the hand-off report because it provides essential information about the patient’s intraoperative status and potential postoperative complications, such as hypovolemia, anemia, or infection. The estimated blood loss (EBL) is an important indicator of the patient’s fluid balance and hemodynamic stability.
Choice A is wrong because “The client was intubated without complications.” is not relevant to the postoperative care of the patient. The intubation status is usually documented in the anesthesia record and does not need to be repeated in the hand-off report unless there were any issues or injuries related to the airway management.
Choice B is wrong because “There was a total of 10 sponges used during the procedure.” is not pertinent to the postoperative care of the patient.
The number of sponges used during the surgery is usually counted and verified by the scrub nurse and the circulating nurse in the operating room to prevent any retained foreign bodies. This information does not need to be communicated to the PACU nurse unless there was a discrepancy or a missing sponge.
Choice D is wrong because “The client is a member of the board of directors.” is not appropriate for the hand-off report.
This statement violates the patient’s privacy and confidentiality and does not contribute to the quality or safety of care. The patient’s role or position in the organization should not influence the hand-off communication or the postoperative care.
A hand-off report is a critical communication tool that facilitates the transfer of care from one provider to another. It should include relevant information about the patient’s medical history, surgical procedure, intraoperative events, postoperative plan, and any concerns or potential problems. A standardized hand-off tool, such as SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), can help improve the consistency, accuracy, and completeness of the hand-off report.
Some normal ranges that may be useful for postoperative care are:
• Blood pressure: 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
• Pulse: 60 to 100 beats/min
• Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths/min
• Oxygen saturation: 95% to 100%
• Temperature: 36°C to 37.5°C
• Hemoglobin: 12 to 18 g/dL
• Hematocrit: 36% to 54%
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choicea. Maternal hypoglycemia.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased glucose availability for the fetus, which can result in fetal bradycardia.The fetus relies on maternal glucose for energy, and a significant drop in maternal glucose levels can affect the fetal heart rate.
Choice B rationale:
Maternal fever is typically associated with fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia.An elevated maternal temperature can increase the fetal heart rate as the fetus attempts to regulate its own temperature.
Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes, is also more commonly associated with fetal tachycardia due to the inflammatory response and fever.
Choice D rationale:
Fetal anemia can cause fetal tachycardia as the fetus compensates for the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.Bradycardia is not a typical response to fetal anemia.
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