A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for four antepartum clients. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
2-hr postprandial glucose 105 mg/dL.
Negative group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
Hgb 13 g/dL.
2+ proteinuria.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Brown in color. The rationale for this choice is that a partial-thickness burn involves damage to the epidermis and the dermis but not the full thickness of the skin. It typically presents with redness, swelling, and blisters. While the burned area may have some discoloration, it is more likely to be red or pink rather than brown. Brown coloration would suggest a deeper burn involving the full thickness of the skin and potentially underlying structures.
Choice B reason:
Leathery appearance. This choice is not expected in a partial-thickness burn. A leathery appearance is characteristic of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, which involves the destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and potentially deeper tissues. In a partial-thickness burn, the skin may appear red, swollen, and blistered, but it should not have a leathery texture.
Choice C reason:
Visible ligaments. This choice is not indicative of a partial-thickness burn either. Partial- thickness burns primarily affect the epidermis and dermis, but they do not extend deep enough to expose ligaments or other structures below the skin. Visible ligaments would suggest a full-thickness burn or an injury that extends beyond the skin layers.
Choice D reason:
Blister formation. This is the correct choice. Blister formation is a common clinical manifestation of a partial-thickness burn. The injury causes fluid accumulation between the layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis), leading to the formation of blisters. The blisters may be filled with clear fluid and are usually painful and sensitive to touch.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The client stating, "This test is to check if my baby has diabetes,” indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of the 1-hr glucose tolerance test (GTT). The test is performed to screen for gestational diabetes in the mother, not to check the baby's diabetes status. Rationale: Gestational diabetes is a condition where high blood sugar levels develop during pregnancy, and it can affect both the mother and the baby's health.
Choice B reason:
The client mentioning, "If the result is higher than normal, I will need to be on insulin the rest of my life,” demonstrates a misconception about the implications of the 1-hr GTT. The 1-hr GTT is a preliminary screening test, and if the results are higher than normal, it indicates the need for further evaluation, but it does not immediately mean a lifetime dependence on insulin. Rationale: Insulin therapy may be required for managing gestational diabetes in some cases, but not necessarily for the rest of the mother's life.
Choice C reason:
The client saying, "If I forget and eat before the test, then I won't be able to have the test done,” indicates a misunderstanding of the test procedure. The 1-hr GTT requires fasting before the test, typically for 8 to 14 hours, to get accurate results. However, if the client mistakenly eats before the test, it doesn't mean they cannot have the test done at all; they may need to reschedule it after an appropriate fasting period. Rationale: Fasting is crucial for accurate glucose level measurement during the test.
Choice D reason:
The client stating, "If the results are high, then I need another test to see if I have gestational diabetes,” demonstrates a correct understanding of the 1-hr GTT. If the initial screening test shows elevated glucose levels, further testing, such as the 3-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT), is required to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Rationale: The 3-hour GTT is a more comprehensive diagnostic test used to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
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