A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for four antepartum clients. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
2-hr postprandial glucose 105 mg/dL.
Negative group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
Hgb 13 g/dL.
2+ proteinuria.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The nurse should not remind the client to void every 4 hours because epidural anesthesia can cause temporary loss of bladder sensation, making it difficult for the client to know when to void. Instead, the nurse should use a bladder scanner to assess for urinary retention and encourage the client to void regularly.
Choice B reason:
Encouraging the client to alternate from side to side every 2 hours is not directly related to the administration of epidural anesthesia. This action is commonly advised for clients who are on bed rest to prevent pressure ulcers and promote circulation. However, it is not specifically necessary for the client receiving epidural anesthesia for pain management during labor.
Choice C reason:
Raising the four side rails on the client's bed is not necessary in this situation. The use of side rails should be based on the client's mobility and risk assessment for falls. If the client is receiving epidural anesthesia, they may experience reduced mobility, but the decision to use side rails should be made on an individual basis, not solely based on the anesthesia.
Choice D reason:
Monitoring the client's blood pressure is a crucial action when a client is receiving epidural anesthesia. Epidural anesthesia can cause a drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. By regularly monitoring the client's blood pressure, the nurse can detect any significant changes and take appropriate actions to maintain hemodynamic stability.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The nurse should not initiate contact precautions for a child with suspected epiglottitis. Epiglottitis is primarily caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, and it spreads through respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are not necessary as the transmission occurs through droplets, and standard precautions should be sufficient.
Choice B reason:
The nurse should monitor pulse oximetry. Epiglottitis is a condition where the epiglottis becomes inflamed and swollen, potentially blocking the airway. Monitoring the child's pulse oximetry helps assess their oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in determining if there is adequate oxygenation. If the oxygen saturation drops significantly, immediate intervention might be needed to maintain the child's airway and prevent hypoxia.
Choice C reason:
Obtaining a throat culture is not an appropriate intervention for suspected epiglottitis. In cases of suspected epiglottitis, the priority is to ensure the child's airway is maintained and that they receive appropriate medical attention promptly. Throat culture collection involves swabbing the throat to identify the infectious agent and is not a priority in this urgent situation.
Choice D reason:
Administering epinephrine IM is not indicated for suspected epiglottitis. Epinephrine is typically used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and not for managing epiglottitis. The primary focus in epiglottitis is securing the airway and providing appropriate medical treatment, which might include antibiotics and respiratory support.
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