A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for four antepartum clients. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
2-hr postprandial glucose 105 mg/dL.
Negative group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
Hgb 13 g/dL.
2+ proteinuria.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B reason: The nurse should ask the client if they have had thoughts about harming their infant. This is a crucial action because the client's statement suggests they may be experiencing feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt as a mother, which could potentially lead to more serious thoughts or actions. By directly asking about thoughts of harming the baby, the nurse can assess the client's mental and emotional state more thoroughly and determine if there is a risk of harm to the infant.
Choice A reason:
The nurse should advise the client that most new mothers experience these feelings. This response acknowledges the client's feelings of inadequacy and normalizes their experience, letting them know that it is common for new mothers to have doubts and insecurities. This validation can help the client feel less alone and more understood, promoting a therapeutic nurse-client relationship.
Choice C reason:
The nurse should explain to the client that they are experiencing the "baby blues.” This is a valid option because the client's statement indicates they may be experiencing mood swings, sadness, and emotional sensitivity, which are typical symptoms of the baby blues. Providing this information can help the client understand that these feelings are transient and often related to hormonal changes after childbirth.
Choice D reason:
Taking the client to the emergency department is not warranted based solely on the information provided. The client's statement does not indicate an immediate danger to themselves or their baby. However, if during the assessment (including choice B), the nurse identifies any signs of potential harm to the infant or the client, further action may be necessary, such as involving appropriate mental health professionals or support services.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Brown in color. The rationale for this choice is that a partial-thickness burn involves damage to the epidermis and the dermis but not the full thickness of the skin. It typically presents with redness, swelling, and blisters. While the burned area may have some discoloration, it is more likely to be red or pink rather than brown. Brown coloration would suggest a deeper burn involving the full thickness of the skin and potentially underlying structures.
Choice B reason:
Leathery appearance. This choice is not expected in a partial-thickness burn. A leathery appearance is characteristic of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, which involves the destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and potentially deeper tissues. In a partial-thickness burn, the skin may appear red, swollen, and blistered, but it should not have a leathery texture.
Choice C reason:
Visible ligaments. This choice is not indicative of a partial-thickness burn either. Partial- thickness burns primarily affect the epidermis and dermis, but they do not extend deep enough to expose ligaments or other structures below the skin. Visible ligaments would suggest a full-thickness burn or an injury that extends beyond the skin layers.
Choice D reason:
Blister formation. This is the correct choice. Blister formation is a common clinical manifestation of a partial-thickness burn. The injury causes fluid accumulation between the layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis), leading to the formation of blisters. The blisters may be filled with clear fluid and are usually painful and sensitive to touch.
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