A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an adolescent female client and notes a WBC count of 16,000/mm² with increased immature neutrophils (bands) and normal monocytes. Which of the following is the appropriate analysis of the results?
An acute infectious process.
A resolving inflammatory process.
Allergic reaction.
Neutropenia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
An increased WBC count with increased bands (immature neutrophils) indicates an acute infectious process. Normal range for WBC is 4,500-11,000/mm².
Choice B rationale:
A resolving inflammatory process would typically show a decreasing WBC count.
Choice C rationale:
An allergic reaction would typically show an increase in eosinophils, not neutrophils.
Choice D rationale:
Neutropenia is a decrease in neutrophils, not an increase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement describes a skin graft, not an escharotomy.
Choice B rationale:
An escharotomy involves making large incisions in the eschar (burned tissue) to relieve pressure and improve circulation to the area.
Choice C rationale:
This statement describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue, but it is not specific to an escharotomy.
Choice D rationale:
This statement describes a method of debridement, not an escharotomy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Obesity is a modifiable risk factor for stroke, as it can be controlled through diet and exercise.
Choice B rationale:
History of hypertension is also a modifiable risk factor, as it can be managed with medication and lifestyle changes.
Choice C rationale:
Genetics is a nonmodifiable risk factor for stroke, as individuals cannot change their genetic makeup.
Choice D rationale:
History of smoking is a modifiable risk factor, as individuals can choose to quit smoking.
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