A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?
Omeprazole
Ranitidine
Sucralfate
Misoprostol.
The Correct Answer is A
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces the production of stomach acid.
Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming.
Both drugs can increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease. Therefore, they should not be used together unless absolutely necessary.
Choice B. Ranitidine is wrong because ranitidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that also reduces the production of stomach acid, but to a lesser extent than PPIs. Ranitidine does not interact significantly with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C. Sucralfate is wrong because sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that forms a barrier over ulcers and protects them from acid and enzymes. Sucralfate does not affect the coagulation system and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice D. Misoprostol is wrong because misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that inhibits gastric acid secretion and increases bicarbonate and mucus production.
Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcers in clients who take NSAIDs, which can cause ulcers and bleeding.
Misoprostol does not interact with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is given until warfarin reaches an effective level in your blood.
Heparin has a shorter duration of action than warfarin, so it is easier to reverse if bleeding occurs.
Choice B is wrong because heparin and warfarin do not have a synergistic effect.
They work on different clotting factors, but they do not enhance each other’s effects.
Choice C is wrong because the route of administration is not relevant to the rationale for using both medications.
Heparin and warfarin can be given by different routes, but that does not explain why they are both necessary.
Choice D is wrong because warfarin does not help dissolve existing clots.
Warfarin prevents the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but it does not break down clots that have already formed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.
Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.
Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.
Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.
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