A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Prothrombin time (PT)
International normalized ratio (INR)
Platelet count.
The Correct Answer is C
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation. The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.
Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa. The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.
The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories. The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.
Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors. Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.
Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.
The other choices are wrong because:
• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.
• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.
Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.
• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.
The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces the production of stomach acid.
Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming.
Both drugs can increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease.Therefore, they should not be used together unless absolutely necessary.
Choice B. Ranitidine is wrong because ranitidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that also reduces the production of stomach acid, but to a lesser extent than PPIs.Ranitidine does not interact significantly with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C. Sucralfate is wrong because sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that forms a barrier over ulcers and protects them from acid and enzymes.Sucralfate does not affect the coagulation system and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice D. Misoprostol is wrong because misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that inhibits gastric acid secretion and increases bicarbonate and mucus production.
Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcers in clients who take NSAIDs, which can cause ulcers and bleeding.
Misoprostol does not interact with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
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