A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client who is pregnant and is taking digoxin.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to best evaluate the client's medication adherence?
Determine the client's apical pulse rate.
Ask the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed.
Assess the client's kidney function.
Check the client's serum medication level.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Determining the client's apical pulse rate is important for monitoring the effects of digoxin therapy but does not directly assess medication adherence.
B. Asking the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed is a direct way to evaluate medication adherence. Open communication with the client can provide valuable insight into their medication-taking behavior.
C. Assessing the client's kidney function is important for monitoring the effects of digoxin therapy but does not directly assess medication adherence.
D. Checking the client's serum medication level can provide information about medication concentration but may not necessarily indicate adherence, as the level could be within the therapeutic range even if the client is not taking the medication as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Back pain following intercourse at 36 weeks of gestation may be common and is not typically indicative of an urgent issue.
B. Severe vomiting in early pregnancy could indicate hyperemesis gravidarum, which may require immediate assessment and intervention to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
C. Frequent urination at 10 weeks of gestation is common due to hormonal changes and increased pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus, but it does not typically require immediate assessment unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
D. Periodic tingling of the fingers at 24 weeks of gestation could be due to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common in pregnancy but does not usually require urgent assessment unless severe or accompanied by other symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Polyuria is not a common adverse effect of opioid analgesics administered via epidural block.
B. Bilateral crackles are not typically associated with opioid analgesics administered via epidural block.
C. Hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) is not a common adverse effect of opioid analgesics administered via epidural block.
D. Hypotension is a common adverse effect of opioid analgesics administered via epidural block. Opioids can cause peripheral vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance, leading to a drop in blood pressure.
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