A nurse is teaching a group of older adult clients about medication safety. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Choice A reason:

A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty should be seen first. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can be a sign of a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism, which is a medical emergency. Pulmonary embolism is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by blood clots that travel to the lungs from the legs or other parts of the body. This condition requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent life-threatening consequences.

Choice B reason:

A client who has a urinary tract infection and low-grade fever is a concern, but it is not as urgent as the client with new onset dyspnea. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common and can be managed with antibiotics and supportive care. While a low-grade fever indicates an infection, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client’s life. The nurse should still address this client’s needs, but it can be done after attending to the more urgent case.

Choice C reason:

A client who has acute abdominal pain of 4 on a scale from 0 to 10 should be assessed, but it is not as critical as the client with new onset dyspnea. Acute abdominal pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent attention, but a pain level of 4 indicates moderate pain. The nurse should evaluate this client to determine the cause of the pain and provide appropriate interventions, but it can be done after addressing the more urgent case.

Choice D reason:

A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96% is stable at the moment. Oxygen saturation levels above 95% are generally considered acceptable in pneumonia patients. While pneumonia requires monitoring and treatment, the client’s current oxygen saturation level indicates that they are not in immediate respiratory distress. The nurse should continue to monitor this client and provide necessary care, but it can be done after attending to the more urgent case.

Choice A reason:

Preventive care focuses on measures taken to prevent diseases, rather than treating them. This includes vaccinations, screenings, and lifestyle counseling. Emergency care, which deals with immediate and acute medical conditions, does not fall under preventive care. Preventive care aims to reduce the incidence of diseases and conditions before they occur, whereas emergency care addresses urgent health issues that require immediate attention.

Choice B reason:

Tertiary care involves specialized consultative care, usually on referral from primary or secondary medical care personnel. It includes advanced medical investigation and treatment, such as cancer management, neurosurgery, cardiac surgery, and other complex medical and surgical interventions. Emergency care, which provides immediate treatment for acute illnesses and injuries, is not categorized under tertiary care. Tertiary care is more about long-term and specialized treatment.

Choice C reason:

Primary care is the first point of contact for individuals entering the healthcare system. It includes general health care services provided by physicians, nurse practitioners, and physician assistants. Primary care focuses on overall health maintenance, disease prevention, and the treatment of common illnesses and conditions. Emergency care, which deals with acute and urgent medical conditions, is not part of primary care. Primary care providers may refer patients to emergency care when immediate attention is needed.

Choice D reason:

Secondary care involves specialized medical services provided by specialists after referral from a primary care provider. It includes services such as cardiology, dermatology, and orthopedics. Emergency care, which provides immediate treatment for acute medical conditions, is considered part of secondary care. Emergency departments in hospitals are staffed by specialists who provide urgent and critical care to patients.