A nurse learns at report that a newly admitted client experiencing mania is demonstrating grandiose delusions. The nurse should recognize which client statement would provide supportive evidence of this symptom?
I'm the world's most perceptive attorney.
The FBI is out to get me
I can't stop my sexual urges. They have led me to numerous affairs.
My wife is distraught about my overspending
The Correct Answer is A
A. "I'm the world's most perceptive attorney.": This statement reflects grandiosity, a common feature of grandiose delusions. The client is expressing an exaggerated belief in their own importance and abilities, indicating a distorted perception of reality.
B. "The FBI is out to get me": This statement suggests paranoid delusions, where the client believes they are being persecuted or conspired against. It does not specifically indicate grandiose delusions.
C. "I can't stop my sexual urges. They have led me to numerous affairs": This statement reflects impulsivity and hypersexuality, which are common features in manic episodes but do not specifically indicate grandiose delusions.
D. "My wife is distraught about my overspending": This statement reflects a consequence of manic behavior (overspending) but does not directly indicate grandiose delusions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications: The symptoms described (uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, difficulty swallowing) are more indicative of tardive dyskinesia than neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity. Treatment involves discontinuing antipsychotic medications and supportive care.
B. Agranulocytosis treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril): Agranulocytosis is a rare but serious side effect of clozapine, not a treatment for the symptoms described. The symptoms presented are more consistent with tardive dyskinesia.
C. Tardive dyskinesia treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medication: This is the correct answer. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary and abnormal movements, including tongue protrusion and facial grimacing. It can result from long-term use of antipsychotic medications, and discontinuing or reducing the dose of the antipsychotic is a primary intervention.
D. Headache treated by administration of Hydrochlorothiazide: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not headache or the symptoms described, which are more indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. Using the proportion, the correct dose of fluoxetine (Prozac) for the prescribed 60 mg is 15 mL.
B. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 20 mL.
C. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 25 mL.
D. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 10 mL.
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