A nurse reviews the chart of a 22-year-old female who complains of severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain that started this morning around her navel. The patient has had diarrhea since yesterday and no appetite. The nurse expects imaging to be ordered to confirm which likely acute abdominal diagnosis?
Appendicitis
Pancreatitis
Peritonitis
Mechanical bowel obstruction
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Appendicitis is likely, as severe right lower quadrant pain migrating from the periumbilical area, accompanied by diarrhea and anorexia, is classic. Inflammation of the appendix causes localized pain, nausea, and gastrointestinal symptoms. Imaging (e.g., CT scan) confirms appendicitis, which requires urgent surgical intervention to prevent rupture and peritonitis.
Choice B reason: Pancreatitis typically presents with epigastric or left upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, often with nausea and vomiting, not right lower quadrant pain. Diarrhea and anorexia are less specific to pancreatitis. The pain’s location and migration pattern make appendicitis more likely than pancreatic inflammation in this case.
Choice C reason: Peritonitis causes diffuse abdominal pain, fever, and rigidity, not localized right lower quadrant pain. It often results from appendicitis rupture but is not the primary diagnosis here. The patient’s symptoms suggest early appendicitis, not secondary peritonitis, which would show more systemic signs like high fever and rebound tenderness.
Choice D reason: Mechanical bowel obstruction causes crampy, diffuse abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting, with constipation more common than diarrhea. The localized right lower quadrant pain and migration from the navel align with appendicitis, not obstruction. Imaging would differentiate, but the symptom pattern strongly supports appendicitis over bowel obstruction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fludrocortisone is appropriate in Addisonian crisis to replace aldosterone, which is deficient in adrenal insufficiency. It promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, correcting hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. This medication is a standard part of treatment, addressing the mineralocorticoid deficiency critical to stabilizing the patient’s electrolyte and fluid balance.
Choice B reason: Hydrocortisone is essential in Addisonian crisis, replacing deficient glucocorticoids. It corrects hypoglycemia, hypotension, and metabolic dysfunction, improving symptoms like weakness and shock. IV hydrocortisone is a cornerstone of treatment, rapidly restoring stress response and preventing life-threatening complications, making it an appropriate and expected medication order.
Choice C reason: Potassium chloride is contraindicated in Addisonian crisis, as adrenal insufficiency causes hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency, impairing potassium excretion. Administering potassium would worsen hyperkalemia, risking cardiac arrhythmias or arrest. The nurse should question this order, as it could exacerbate the patient’s already elevated potassium levels.
Choice D reason: Normal saline solution is appropriate for Addisonian crisis to correct hypotension and hyponatremia caused by aldosterone deficiency and fluid loss. Isotonic saline restores volume and sodium levels, stabilizing hemodynamics. It is a standard intervention, supporting blood pressure and electrolyte balance, making it an expected part of the treatment plan.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: DIC is not caused by the immune system attacking platelets. This describes conditions like immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). In DIC, widespread clotting consumes platelets and clotting factors, leading to bleeding. The immune system is not the primary driver; rather, it’s triggered by conditions like sepsis or trauma.
Choice B reason: DIC results from abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, often triggered by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy. This causes microclots to form in small vessels, consuming clotting factors and platelets, leading to bleeding. Organ damage occurs from microthrombi, and depletion of coagulation components causes hemorrhage, accurately describing DIC’s pathophysiology.
Choice C reason: Hemolytic processes destroying erythrocytes describe hemolytic anemia, not DIC. While hemolysis may occur in DIC due to microangiopathic changes, it is not the primary cause. DIC involves widespread clotting and factor consumption, not primarily red cell destruction, making this an inaccurate explanation of its etiology.
Choice D reason: DIC is not primarily a complication of autoimmune diseases attacking cells. It is triggered by conditions like sepsis, cancer, or obstetric complications, activating the clotting cascade. Autoimmune diseases like lupus may rarely contribute, but DIC’s hallmark is coagulopathy from external triggers, not autoimmunity, making this explanation incorrect.
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