A nurse working for a home health agency is assessing an older adult male client. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to address?
Urinary hesitancy
Dysphagia
Swollen gums
Pruritus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because urinary hesitancy is not the priority finding for the nurse to address.
Urinary hesitancy is a difficulty or delay in starting or maintaining a urine stream. It may be caused by various factors such as prostate enlargement, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or psychological issues. It may cause discomfort, pain, or urinary retention, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
Choice B Reason: This choice is correct because dysphagia is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Dysphagia is a difficulty or inability to swallow food or liquids. It may be caused by various factors such as stroke, Parkinson's disease, dementia, esophageal cancer, or oral infections. It may cause malnutrition, dehydration, aspiration, or choking, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, sepsis, or death. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client's swallowing function and provide appropriate interventions such as modifying the diet texture, using thickening agents, or teaching swallowing techniques.
Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect because swollen gums are not the priority finding for the nurse to address. Swollen gums are an inflammation or enlargement of the gingival tissue that surrounds the teeth. They may be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene, gum disease, vitamin deficiency, medication side effects, or hormonal changes. They may cause bleeding, pain, or infection, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because pruritus is not the priority finding for the nurse to address. Pruritus is a sensation of itching that affects the skin. It may be caused by various factors such as dry skin, allergies, eczema, psoriasis, liver disease, or kidney disease. It may cause discomfort, scratching, or skin damage, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that affects the cardiac function and rhythm. A normal serum potassium range is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, and an abnormal level can indicate hypokalemia or hyperkalemia, which can cause arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. Therefore, monitoring serum potassium is important to detect and correct any electrolyte imbalance and prevent complications.
Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that helps to reduce fluid retention and edema by increasing the urine output and sodium excretion. It may be used for clients who have heart failure, hypertension, or renal impairment, but it can cause hypokalemia, hypotension, or dehydration.
Therefore, administering bumetanide as prescribed can help to improve the cardiac output and reduce the preload and afterload.
Choice C Reason: This choice is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is an inappropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that contains the same concentration of solutes as blood plasma. It may be used for clients who have fluid loss, dehydration, or shock, but it can worsen fluid overload and pulmonary edema in clients who have acute heart failure. Therefore, clarifying this prescription with the provider is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the client's condition.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that helps to relieve pain and anxiety by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It may be used for clients who have moderate to severe pain, dyspnea, or chest discomfort, but it can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, or nausea. Therefore, administering morphine sulfate as prescribed can help to reduce the oxygen demand and improve the cardiac function.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because preparing for mechanical ventilation is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is an invasive and potentially harmful procedure that should be reserved for clients who have severe respiratory failure and cannot maintain adequate oxygenation with noninvasive methods.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing intervention, as it is a noninvasive and effective way to improve oxygenation and reduce hypoxemia in a client who has low PaO2 and SaO2. Oxygen therapy can also decrease the workload of the heart and lungs and prevent further complications.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because preparing to administer a sedative is not the priority nursing intervention, as it may worsen the client's respiratory status and mask the signs and symptoms of hypoxemia. Sedatives should be used with caution and only after oxygenation has been optimized.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because assessing for indications of pulmonary embolism is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is a diagnostic rather than a therapeutic action. Pulmonary embolism is a possible cause of the client's condition, but it does not address the immediate problem of hypoxemia.
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